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NURS 400 ADVANCED PRACTICE EXAM 1 ADVANCED ASSESSMENT] QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027.

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NURS 400 ADVANCED PRACTICE EXAM 1 ADVANCED ASSESSMENT] QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027.

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NURS 400 ADVANCED PRACTICE EXAM 1 ADVANCED ASSESSMENT] QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |LATEST EXAM
UPDATE 2026/2027.
Section One: Questions 1–100
A patient presents with a sudden onset of dyspnea and tachycardia. Which assessment finding is
most concerning for pulmonary embolism?
A. Crackles in the lung bases
B. Symmetrical pedal edema
C. Unilateral calf swelling and tenderness
D. Productive cough with green sputum
🟢 C. Unilateral calf swelling and tenderness
🔴 RATIONALE: Unilateral calf swelling is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis, the most
common source of pulmonary emboli.
When conducting a comprehensive health history, what is the primary goal of the review of
systems?
A. To establish a baseline for insurance billing
B. To identify symptoms that the patient may have forgotten to mention
C. To replace the physical examination
D. To diagnose chronic conditions
🟢 B. To identify symptoms that the patient may have forgotten to mention
🔴 RATIONALE: The review of systems is a systematic method for collecting data about all body
systems to ensure no pertinent information is overlooked.
Which ethical principle is primarily involved when an advanced practice nurse respects a patient's
refusal of a recommended procedure?
A. Beneficence

,B. Non-maleficence
C. Justice
D. Autonomy
🟢 D. Autonomy
🔴 RATIONALE: Autonomy refers to the right of the patient to make their own healthcare
decisions, including the right to refuse treatment.
A patient has a BMI of 32. According to clinical guidelines, how should this be classified?
A. Overweight
B. Obese Class I
C. Obese Class II
D. Morbidly obese
🟢 B. Obese Class I
🔴 RATIONALE: A BMI between 30 and 34.9 is categorized as Obese Class I.
Which laboratory test is the most sensitive indicator for early renal dysfunction in a patient with
hypertension?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Blood urea nitrogen
C. Albumin-to-creatinine ratio
D. Electrolyte panel
🟢 C. Albumin-to-creatinine ratio
🔴 RATIONALE: Microalbuminuria is often the earliest clinical sign of hypertensive renal damage.
What is the most appropriate action when an advanced practice nurse identifies a potential conflict
of interest in a research project?
A. Disregard it if the study is low-risk

,B. Disclose the conflict to the oversight board and stakeholders
C. Continue the study but avoid publishing results
D. Modify the data to remove the conflict
🟢 B. Disclose the conflict to the oversight board and stakeholders
🔴 RATIONALE: Transparency and disclosure are essential in maintaining professional integrity
and protecting subjects.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of the face and motor function of the muscles
of mastication?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN XII
🟢 A. CN V
🔴 RATIONALE: The trigeminal nerve (CN V) controls facial sensation and muscles used for
chewing.
When performing a cardiac exam, the murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard at:
A. The second right intercostal space
B. The apex
C. The left sternal border
D. The epigastric area
🟢 B. The apex
🔴 RATIONALE: Mitral regurgitation is a systolic murmur that typically radiates to the axilla and is
heard best at the mitral area (apex).

, A 65-year-old patient has a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg. According to current JNC guidelines,
what is the initial management priority?
A. Immediate start of two antihypertensive medications
B. Lifestyle modifications and monitoring
C. Referral to a cardiologist
D. Initiation of a beta-blocker
🟢 B. Lifestyle modifications and monitoring
🔴 RATIONALE: For Stage 1 hypertension without high cardiovascular risk, lifestyle modification is
the initial standard of care.
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
A. Childhood vaccinations
B. Mammography screening
C. Rehabilitation after a stroke
D. Smoking cessation education
🟢 B. Mammography screening
🔴 RATIONALE: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease in asymptomatic
individuals through screening.
An elderly patient presents with confusion and a UTI. What is the most likely cause?
A. Advanced dementia
B. Delirium secondary to infection
C. Cerebrovascular accident
D. Vitamin deficiency
🟢 B. Delirium secondary to infection
🔴 RATIONALE: In the elderly, systemic infections like UTIs often manifest as acute confusion or
delirium rather than traditional symptoms.

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