PREP 2026 NSG 3850 EXAM ACTUAL
100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES ALREADY A+ GRADED |
CURRENTLY TESTING | NEW AND
REVISED
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of heart failure and
is receiving furosemide. Which finding indicates the client may be
experiencing fluid volume deficit?
A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
Correct Answer: C) Orthostatic hypotension
,Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a classic sign of fluid
volume deficit related to intravascular volume depletion.
Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that can cause excessive fluid
loss. Bilateral crackles, jugular vein distention, and rapid weight
gain are all indicators of fluid volume excess, which is the
opposite problem.
Question 2
A patient with longstanding hypertension is at greatest risk for
which complication due to increased afterload?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Mitral valve prolapse
Correct Answer: B) Left ventricular hypertrophy and heart
failure
Rationale: Chronic hypertension increases systemic vascular
resistance (afterload). The left ventricle compensates by
hypertrophy, but eventually this leads to diastolic dysfunction and
heart failure with preserved or reduced ejection fraction.
Question 3
,The primary pathophysiological event in a myocardial infarction
(MI) is:
A. Coronary artery vasospasm without plaque rupture
B. Rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque leading to thrombus
formation and coronary occlusion
C. Embolism from a vegetation on the aortic valve
D. Dissection of the coronary artery
Correct Answer: B) Rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque
leading to thrombus formation and coronary occlusion
Rationale: Most MIs result from rupture of an unstable
atherosclerotic plaque, which triggers platelet aggregation and
thrombus formation, leading to complete coronary occlusion and
ischemia.
Question 4
A client with heart failure has crackles in all lung fields, jugular
venous distention, and 3+ pitting edema. Which medication
should the nurse expect to administer first?
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Enalapril
D. Carvedilol
Correct Answer: B) Furosemide
, Rationale: Furosemide (loop diuretic) reduces preload by
promoting diuresis, relieving pulmonary congestion. The client
shows signs of fluid overload; diuretics are the first-line treatment
for acute exacerbation of heart failure.
Question 5
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which finding
indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate 62 bpm
B. Anorexia and nausea
C. Weight gain
D. Increased urine output
Correct Answer: B) Anorexia and nausea
Rationale: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are early signs of
digoxin toxicity. Other signs include visual disturbances (yellow-
green halos), bradycardia, and cardiac arrhythmias.
SECTION 2: RENAL & ELECTROLYTE DISORDERS
Question 6
100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES ALREADY A+ GRADED |
CURRENTLY TESTING | NEW AND
REVISED
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of heart failure and
is receiving furosemide. Which finding indicates the client may be
experiencing fluid volume deficit?
A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
Correct Answer: C) Orthostatic hypotension
,Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a classic sign of fluid
volume deficit related to intravascular volume depletion.
Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that can cause excessive fluid
loss. Bilateral crackles, jugular vein distention, and rapid weight
gain are all indicators of fluid volume excess, which is the
opposite problem.
Question 2
A patient with longstanding hypertension is at greatest risk for
which complication due to increased afterload?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Mitral valve prolapse
Correct Answer: B) Left ventricular hypertrophy and heart
failure
Rationale: Chronic hypertension increases systemic vascular
resistance (afterload). The left ventricle compensates by
hypertrophy, but eventually this leads to diastolic dysfunction and
heart failure with preserved or reduced ejection fraction.
Question 3
,The primary pathophysiological event in a myocardial infarction
(MI) is:
A. Coronary artery vasospasm without plaque rupture
B. Rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque leading to thrombus
formation and coronary occlusion
C. Embolism from a vegetation on the aortic valve
D. Dissection of the coronary artery
Correct Answer: B) Rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque
leading to thrombus formation and coronary occlusion
Rationale: Most MIs result from rupture of an unstable
atherosclerotic plaque, which triggers platelet aggregation and
thrombus formation, leading to complete coronary occlusion and
ischemia.
Question 4
A client with heart failure has crackles in all lung fields, jugular
venous distention, and 3+ pitting edema. Which medication
should the nurse expect to administer first?
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Enalapril
D. Carvedilol
Correct Answer: B) Furosemide
, Rationale: Furosemide (loop diuretic) reduces preload by
promoting diuresis, relieving pulmonary congestion. The client
shows signs of fluid overload; diuretics are the first-line treatment
for acute exacerbation of heart failure.
Question 5
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which finding
indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Heart rate 62 bpm
B. Anorexia and nausea
C. Weight gain
D. Increased urine output
Correct Answer: B) Anorexia and nausea
Rationale: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are early signs of
digoxin toxicity. Other signs include visual disturbances (yellow-
green halos), bradycardia, and cardiac arrhythmias.
SECTION 2: RENAL & ELECTROLYTE DISORDERS
Question 6
