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Nur 220 ATI EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS

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What are the three types of transmission-based precautions? - correct answers Contact, Droplet, and Airborne precautions. What PPE is needed for contact precautions? - correct answers Gown and gloves (e.g., for C. diff, MRSA, VRE). What PPE is required for droplet precautions? - correct answers Mask, gown, gloves (e.g., influenza, mumps). What PPE is needed for airborne precautions? - correct answers N95 respirator, negative-pressure room (e.g., TB, measles, varicella). What is the proper order for donning PPE? - correct answers Gown → Mask → Goggles → Gloves. What is the proper order for removing PPE? - correct answers Gloves → Goggles → Gown → Mask. What is the #1 way to prevent infection spread? - correct answers Hand hygiene. What are signs of fluid volume deficit (FVD)? - correct answers Dry mucous membranes, hypotension, tachycardia, poor skin turgor. What are signs of fluid volume excess (FVE)? - correct answers Edema, crackles in lungs, bounding pulse, increased BP, weight gain. What does infiltration at an IV site look like? - correct answers Cool, pale skin, swelling, and pain at site. What lab values increase with dehydration? - correct answers Hematocrit, BUN, and urine specific gravity. What is the normal urine output per hour? - correct answers 30 mL/hr minimum. What is the difference between central and peripheral IV care? - correct answers Central lines require sterile technique; peripheral require aseptic. What is the normal oxygen saturation range? - correct answers 95-100% (may be lower in COPD patients). What should be avoided around oxygen? - correct answers Flames, smoking, and petroleum-based products. What is the nasal cannula oxygen range? - correct answers 1-6 L/min (24-44% FiO₂). What oxygen device delivers the highest concentration? - correct answers Non-rebreather mask (up to 95-100% FiO₂). What is a sign of oxygen toxicity? - correct answers Nonproductive cough, chest pain, nausea, confusion. How often should oral care be performed for unconscious patients? - correct answers Every 2 hours. How should the nurse position an unconscious patient for oral care? - correct answers Side-lying with head turned to the side. What is the safest way to transfer a patient? - correct answers Use gait belt and lock wheelchair brakes. On which side should the cane be held? - correct answers On the stronger side of the body. What is VTE prophylaxis? - correct answers Preventing blood clots (e.g., SCDs, ambulation, leg exercises). How should diets be advanced after surgery? - correct answers NPO → Clear liquids → Full liquids → Soft diet → Regular. What should be done before feeding a patient with dysphagia? - correct answers Sit the patient upright (90°) and check for swallow reflex. What are complications of enteral feeding? - correct answers Aspiration, diarrhea, tube displacement. How should TPN therapy be discontinued? - correct answers Gradually, to prevent hypoglycemia. What labs should be monitored for TPN? - correct answers Glucose and electrolytes. What position should the patient be in for an enema? - correct answers Left Sims position. What is the main cause of constipation in immobile patients? - correct answers Decreased peristalsis and fluid intake. What should be assessed before administering an enema? - correct answers Bowel sounds and abdominal distension. When is cold therapy used? - correct answers For acute injuries, swelling, and inflammation. When is heat therapy used? - correct answers For chronic pain and muscle spasms. What are key pain assessment points? - correct answers Location, intensity, duration, and quality. What is HIPAA? - correct answers A federal law protecting patient privacy. What does DNR stand for? - correct answers Do Not Resuscitate — no CPR if cardiac arrest occurs. When should an incident report be filed? - correct answers For medication errors, falls, or patient injuries. What are examples of protected health information (PHI)? - correct answers Name, address, medical record number, diagnosis. What are best practices for electronic documentation? - correct answers Log out after use, avoid sharing passwords, verify entries. What should be avoided when charting? - correct answers Opinions, unapproved abbreviations, and leaving blanks.

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Institution
NUR 220
Course
NUR 220

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Nur 220 ATI EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS

What are the three types of transmission-based precautions? - correct answers Contact, Droplet, and
Airborne precautions.



What PPE is needed for contact precautions? - correct answers Gown and gloves (e.g., for C. diff, MRSA,
VRE).



What PPE is required for droplet precautions? - correct answers Mask, gown, gloves (e.g., influenza,
mumps).



What PPE is needed for airborne precautions? - correct answers N95 respirator, negative-pressure room
(e.g., TB, measles, varicella).



What is the proper order for donning PPE? - correct answers Gown → Mask → Goggles → Gloves.



What is the proper order for removing PPE? - correct answers Gloves → Goggles → Gown → Mask.



What is the #1 way to prevent infection spread? - correct answers Hand hygiene.



What are signs of fluid volume deficit (FVD)? - correct answers Dry mucous membranes, hypotension,
tachycardia, poor skin turgor.



What are signs of fluid volume excess (FVE)? - correct answers Edema, crackles in lungs, bounding pulse,
increased BP, weight gain.



What does infiltration at an IV site look like? - correct answers Cool, pale skin, swelling, and pain at site.

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NUR 220

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