A-IPC Exam Study Guide (Practice Test #1) 2026/2027 – 135
Reviewed Questions with 100% Verified Answers
Ace your Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology entry-level exam
with this comprehensive A-IPC Practice Test #1 study guide. This premium resource
features 135 thoroughly reviewed questions tracking key exam domains like
epidemiology calculations, isolation precautions, and the Spaulding classification
system. Every question includes 100% verified answers and deep rationales to solidify
your infection prevention clinical reasoning.
QUESTION 1
A patient in the intensive care unit develops a bloodstream infection. The blood culture
grows coagulase-negative staphylococci in one of two sets. The patient is afebrile and
has no signs of infection. What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A) This represents a true bloodstream infection requiring immediate treatment
B) This is most likely a contaminant and should be correlated clinically
C) The patient should be started on vancomycin immediately
D) The central line should be removed immediately
Correct Answer: B) This is most likely a contaminant and should be correlated
clinically
Rationale: Coagulase-negative staphylococci are common skin contaminants. A single
positive bottle in an asymptomatic patient is most likely contamination. Clinical
correlation is essential before initiating treatment or removing lines.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a key component of the surgical site infection (SSI) prevention
bundle?
A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics 2 hours before incision
B) Maintain normothermia during surgery
,C) Shave the surgical site the night before surgery
D) Use broad-spectrum antibiotics for all surgical patients
Correct Answer: B) Maintain normothermia during surgery
Rationale: Maintaining normothermia during surgery is a key SSI prevention strategy.
Antibiotics should be given within 60 minutes before incision (not 2 hours), shaving should
be done immediately before surgery (not the night before), and narrow-spectrum
antibiotics are preferred.
QUESTION 3
The Infection Preventionist is investigating an outbreak of bloodstream infections in the
neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). The most likely source of infection is:
A) Contaminated breast milk
B) Healthcare worker hands
C) Contaminated equipment
D) The infant's own skin flora
Correct Answer: B) Healthcare worker hands
Rationale: Healthcare worker hands are the most common source of transmission in NICU
outbreaks. Hand hygiene compliance is critical in preventing infections in this vulnerable
population.
QUESTION 4
A patient is placed on Contact Precautions for a wound infection with MRSA. Which of
the following is required for healthcare workers entering the room?
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown and gloves
D) Eye protection
Correct Answer: C) Gown and gloves
,Rationale: Contact Precautions require gown and gloves for any entry into the patient's
room. N95 respirators are for airborne precautions, surgical masks for droplet precautions,
and eye protection is required for procedures with splash risk.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about hand hygiene is correct?
A) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are effective against C. difficile spores
B) Hand washing with soap and water is required after using the restroom
C) Hand hygiene is only necessary before patient contact
D) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not effective against influenza virus
Correct Answer: B) Hand washing with soap and water is required after using the
restroom
Rationale: Hand washing with soap and water is required after using the restroom and
when hands are visibly soiled. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not effective against C.
difficile spores. Hand hygiene is required before and after patient contact. Alcohol-based
hand sanitizers are effective against influenza virus.
QUESTION 6
A patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted to the hospital. Which type of
precautions should be implemented?
A) Standard Precautions only
B) Droplet Precautions
C) Contact Precautions
D) Airborne Precautions
Correct Answer: D) Airborne Precautions
Rationale: Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions, including a
negative pressure room and N95 respirator for healthcare workers. Droplet Precautions
are for organisms transmitted by respiratory droplets. Contact Precautions are for
organisms transmitted by direct or indirect contact.
, QUESTION 7
The Infection Preventionist is reviewing the hospital's antibiogram. The purpose of the
antibiogram is to:
A) Provide a monthly report on new and emerging antimicrobials
B) Provide information on antimicrobial susceptibility patterns to guide empiric therapy
C) Track healthcare worker compliance with hand hygiene
D) Monitor surgical site infection rates
Correct Answer: B) Provide information on antimicrobial susceptibility patterns to
guide empiric therapy
Rationale: An antibiogram is a summary of antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of
organisms isolated from a hospital or community. It provides critical information for
guiding empiric antimicrobial therapy and monitoring resistance trends.
QUESTION 8
A patient develops a urinary tract infection 5 days after insertion of a Foley catheter. The
most likely pathogen is:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Escherichia coli
C) Enterococcus faecalis
D) Candida albicans
Correct Answer: B) Escherichia coli
Rationale: E. coli is the most common pathogen associated with catheter-associated
urinary tract infections (CAUTIs), accounting for approximately 20-30% of cases. This is
consistent with its role as the predominant uropathogen in general urinary tract infections.
Reviewed Questions with 100% Verified Answers
Ace your Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology entry-level exam
with this comprehensive A-IPC Practice Test #1 study guide. This premium resource
features 135 thoroughly reviewed questions tracking key exam domains like
epidemiology calculations, isolation precautions, and the Spaulding classification
system. Every question includes 100% verified answers and deep rationales to solidify
your infection prevention clinical reasoning.
QUESTION 1
A patient in the intensive care unit develops a bloodstream infection. The blood culture
grows coagulase-negative staphylococci in one of two sets. The patient is afebrile and
has no signs of infection. What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A) This represents a true bloodstream infection requiring immediate treatment
B) This is most likely a contaminant and should be correlated clinically
C) The patient should be started on vancomycin immediately
D) The central line should be removed immediately
Correct Answer: B) This is most likely a contaminant and should be correlated
clinically
Rationale: Coagulase-negative staphylococci are common skin contaminants. A single
positive bottle in an asymptomatic patient is most likely contamination. Clinical
correlation is essential before initiating treatment or removing lines.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a key component of the surgical site infection (SSI) prevention
bundle?
A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics 2 hours before incision
B) Maintain normothermia during surgery
,C) Shave the surgical site the night before surgery
D) Use broad-spectrum antibiotics for all surgical patients
Correct Answer: B) Maintain normothermia during surgery
Rationale: Maintaining normothermia during surgery is a key SSI prevention strategy.
Antibiotics should be given within 60 minutes before incision (not 2 hours), shaving should
be done immediately before surgery (not the night before), and narrow-spectrum
antibiotics are preferred.
QUESTION 3
The Infection Preventionist is investigating an outbreak of bloodstream infections in the
neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). The most likely source of infection is:
A) Contaminated breast milk
B) Healthcare worker hands
C) Contaminated equipment
D) The infant's own skin flora
Correct Answer: B) Healthcare worker hands
Rationale: Healthcare worker hands are the most common source of transmission in NICU
outbreaks. Hand hygiene compliance is critical in preventing infections in this vulnerable
population.
QUESTION 4
A patient is placed on Contact Precautions for a wound infection with MRSA. Which of
the following is required for healthcare workers entering the room?
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown and gloves
D) Eye protection
Correct Answer: C) Gown and gloves
,Rationale: Contact Precautions require gown and gloves for any entry into the patient's
room. N95 respirators are for airborne precautions, surgical masks for droplet precautions,
and eye protection is required for procedures with splash risk.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about hand hygiene is correct?
A) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are effective against C. difficile spores
B) Hand washing with soap and water is required after using the restroom
C) Hand hygiene is only necessary before patient contact
D) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not effective against influenza virus
Correct Answer: B) Hand washing with soap and water is required after using the
restroom
Rationale: Hand washing with soap and water is required after using the restroom and
when hands are visibly soiled. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not effective against C.
difficile spores. Hand hygiene is required before and after patient contact. Alcohol-based
hand sanitizers are effective against influenza virus.
QUESTION 6
A patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted to the hospital. Which type of
precautions should be implemented?
A) Standard Precautions only
B) Droplet Precautions
C) Contact Precautions
D) Airborne Precautions
Correct Answer: D) Airborne Precautions
Rationale: Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions, including a
negative pressure room and N95 respirator for healthcare workers. Droplet Precautions
are for organisms transmitted by respiratory droplets. Contact Precautions are for
organisms transmitted by direct or indirect contact.
, QUESTION 7
The Infection Preventionist is reviewing the hospital's antibiogram. The purpose of the
antibiogram is to:
A) Provide a monthly report on new and emerging antimicrobials
B) Provide information on antimicrobial susceptibility patterns to guide empiric therapy
C) Track healthcare worker compliance with hand hygiene
D) Monitor surgical site infection rates
Correct Answer: B) Provide information on antimicrobial susceptibility patterns to
guide empiric therapy
Rationale: An antibiogram is a summary of antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of
organisms isolated from a hospital or community. It provides critical information for
guiding empiric antimicrobial therapy and monitoring resistance trends.
QUESTION 8
A patient develops a urinary tract infection 5 days after insertion of a Foley catheter. The
most likely pathogen is:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Escherichia coli
C) Enterococcus faecalis
D) Candida albicans
Correct Answer: B) Escherichia coli
Rationale: E. coli is the most common pathogen associated with catheter-associated
urinary tract infections (CAUTIs), accounting for approximately 20-30% of cases. This is
consistent with its role as the predominant uropathogen in general urinary tract infections.
