Certified Coding Specialist (CCS)
Examination Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
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Question 1
Which of the following is the correct code assignment for type 2 diabetes mellitus
with diabetic chronic kidney disease?
A. E11.9
B. E11.22
C. E10.22
D. N18.9
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease requires a
combination code that captures both the diabetes and the renal complication.
E11.22 specifically represents type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney
disease. E11.9 is unspecified diabetes without complications and is incorrect
because a complication is present. E10.22 is for type 1 diabetes, which does not
apply here. N18.9 represents chronic kidney disease alone and does not capture
the causal relationship with diabetes.
Question 2
A patient undergoes a diagnostic colonoscopy with biopsy of a polyp. What is the
correct CPT coding approach?
,A. 45378
B. 45380
C. 45384
D. 45385
Rationale: CPT 45380 describes colonoscopy with biopsy, which matches the
procedure performed. 45378 is diagnostic colonoscopy only without biopsy. 45384
involves removal of lesion using hot biopsy forceps, and 45385 involves snare
polypectomy. Since a biopsy was performed, 45380 is the most accurate code.
Question 3
What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for acute appendicitis with generalized
peritonitis?
A. K35.80
B. K37
C. K35.2
D. K65.9
Rationale: K35.2 identifies acute appendicitis with generalized peritonitis, which is
a severe complication. K35.80 is acute appendicitis without perforation or
peritonitis. K37 is unspecified appendicitis and lacks detail. K65.9 is peritonitis
without specifying appendiceal origin.
Question 4
Which CPT modifier is used to indicate a discontinued procedure after anesthesia
has been administered?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 54
D. 53
,Rationale: Modifier 53 is used when a procedure is discontinued after anesthesia
due to patient safety or unforeseen circumstances. Modifier 52 indicates reduced
services, 54 relates to surgical care only (global surgical package component). The
correct and only appropriate choice for discontinued procedure is 53.
Question 5
What is the correct DRG assignment concept primarily based on?
A. CPT codes
B. ICD-10-PCS codes only
C. Principal diagnosis and procedures performed
D. Patient age only
Rationale: DRG assignment is based primarily on the principal diagnosis,
secondary diagnoses (CC/MCC), and procedures performed. CPT codes are used for
outpatient billing, not DRGs. ICD-10-PCS codes contribute but are not the sole
determinant. Patient age alone does not determine DRG grouping.
Question 6
Which code represents essential (primary) hypertension?
A. I10
B. I11.0
C. I12.9
D. I10
Rationale: I10 is the correct code for essential hypertension. I11.0 indicates
hypertensive heart disease with heart failure. I12.9 is hypertensive chronic kidney
disease without heart failure. Only I10 represents uncomplicated primary
hypertension.
Question 7
, What is the correct CPT code for laparoscopic appendectomy?
A. 44950
B. 44955
C. 44970
D. 44970
Rationale: CPT 44970 describes laparoscopic appendectomy. 44950 and 44955 are
open appendectomy procedures or variations involving perforation or
complications. The laparoscopic approach specifically requires 44970.
Question 8
Which coding system is used for inpatient hospital procedure coding?
A. CPT
B. HCPCS Level II
C. ICD-10-CM
D. ICD-10-PCS
Rationale: ICD-10-PCS is used for inpatient hospital procedure coding in the United
States. CPT is used primarily for outpatient and physician services. HCPCS Level II
covers supplies and services. ICD-10-CM is for diagnoses, not procedures.
Question 9
What does POA stand for in hospital coding?
A. Procedure of Admission
B. Present on Admission
C. Proof of Authorization
D. Point of Analysis
Rationale: POA stands for Present on Admission and indicates whether a condition
existed at the time the patient was admitted. It is crucial for quality reporting and
reimbursement. The other options are not valid coding terminology.
Examination Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
Question 1
Which of the following is the correct code assignment for type 2 diabetes mellitus
with diabetic chronic kidney disease?
A. E11.9
B. E11.22
C. E10.22
D. N18.9
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease requires a
combination code that captures both the diabetes and the renal complication.
E11.22 specifically represents type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney
disease. E11.9 is unspecified diabetes without complications and is incorrect
because a complication is present. E10.22 is for type 1 diabetes, which does not
apply here. N18.9 represents chronic kidney disease alone and does not capture
the causal relationship with diabetes.
Question 2
A patient undergoes a diagnostic colonoscopy with biopsy of a polyp. What is the
correct CPT coding approach?
,A. 45378
B. 45380
C. 45384
D. 45385
Rationale: CPT 45380 describes colonoscopy with biopsy, which matches the
procedure performed. 45378 is diagnostic colonoscopy only without biopsy. 45384
involves removal of lesion using hot biopsy forceps, and 45385 involves snare
polypectomy. Since a biopsy was performed, 45380 is the most accurate code.
Question 3
What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for acute appendicitis with generalized
peritonitis?
A. K35.80
B. K37
C. K35.2
D. K65.9
Rationale: K35.2 identifies acute appendicitis with generalized peritonitis, which is
a severe complication. K35.80 is acute appendicitis without perforation or
peritonitis. K37 is unspecified appendicitis and lacks detail. K65.9 is peritonitis
without specifying appendiceal origin.
Question 4
Which CPT modifier is used to indicate a discontinued procedure after anesthesia
has been administered?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 54
D. 53
,Rationale: Modifier 53 is used when a procedure is discontinued after anesthesia
due to patient safety or unforeseen circumstances. Modifier 52 indicates reduced
services, 54 relates to surgical care only (global surgical package component). The
correct and only appropriate choice for discontinued procedure is 53.
Question 5
What is the correct DRG assignment concept primarily based on?
A. CPT codes
B. ICD-10-PCS codes only
C. Principal diagnosis and procedures performed
D. Patient age only
Rationale: DRG assignment is based primarily on the principal diagnosis,
secondary diagnoses (CC/MCC), and procedures performed. CPT codes are used for
outpatient billing, not DRGs. ICD-10-PCS codes contribute but are not the sole
determinant. Patient age alone does not determine DRG grouping.
Question 6
Which code represents essential (primary) hypertension?
A. I10
B. I11.0
C. I12.9
D. I10
Rationale: I10 is the correct code for essential hypertension. I11.0 indicates
hypertensive heart disease with heart failure. I12.9 is hypertensive chronic kidney
disease without heart failure. Only I10 represents uncomplicated primary
hypertension.
Question 7
, What is the correct CPT code for laparoscopic appendectomy?
A. 44950
B. 44955
C. 44970
D. 44970
Rationale: CPT 44970 describes laparoscopic appendectomy. 44950 and 44955 are
open appendectomy procedures or variations involving perforation or
complications. The laparoscopic approach specifically requires 44970.
Question 8
Which coding system is used for inpatient hospital procedure coding?
A. CPT
B. HCPCS Level II
C. ICD-10-CM
D. ICD-10-PCS
Rationale: ICD-10-PCS is used for inpatient hospital procedure coding in the United
States. CPT is used primarily for outpatient and physician services. HCPCS Level II
covers supplies and services. ICD-10-CM is for diagnoses, not procedures.
Question 9
What does POA stand for in hospital coding?
A. Procedure of Admission
B. Present on Admission
C. Proof of Authorization
D. Point of Analysis
Rationale: POA stands for Present on Admission and indicates whether a condition
existed at the time the patient was admitted. It is crucial for quality reporting and
reimbursement. The other options are not valid coding terminology.
