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Rasmussen University NUR 2502 Final Exam (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 3 Q&A | Nursing

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Conquer your cumulative medical-surgical exit evaluation and secure your course credit with this premier high-yield study resource for the Rasmussen University NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3) Final Exam. Fully optimized for the 2026/2027 academic syllabus, this comprehensive PDF features verified exam-style questions, accurate answers, and exhaustive clinical rationales spanning all modules. Inside, you will unlock deep synthesis of advanced medical-surgical competencies, focusing heavily on emergency prioritization, multi-system organ failure, and high-acuity patient stabilization using ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and triage frameworks.

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Institution
NUR 2502
Course
NUR 2502

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Rasmussen University NUR 2502 Final Exam (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC
3 Q&A | Nursing

1. A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an antibiotic to a client
with suspected bacterial pneumonia. Which action is most important for the
nurse to take before administering the medication?

A) Assess the client's temperature

B) Obtain a sputum culture

C) Ask about food allergies

D) Check the client's oxygen saturation



Correct Answer: Obtain a sputum culture



Rationale: A sputum culture should be obtained before the first dose of
antibiotics to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate therapy.
Administering antibiotics before collecting the culture can lead to false-
negative results and inappropriate treatment.



2. A client with chronic bronchitis is exhibiting signs of hypoxia. What is the
priority assessment for the nurse to monitor?

A) Barrel chest

B) Nutritional status

C) Oxygen saturation levels

D) Clubbing of the fingers



Correct Answer: Oxygen saturation levels



Rationale: Oxygen saturation level is the most direct indicator of hypoxia in a
client with chronic bronchitis, as it reflects the adequacy of oxygenation.
Barrel chest, nutritional status, and clubbing are relevant findings but are
secondary to the priority assessment of oxygenation status.

,3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic airflow limitation who is
experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following positions offers NO benefit for
relieving dyspnea?

A) Sitting at the edge of the chair, leaning forward with arms folded and
resting on a table

B) A low semi-reclining position with shoulders back

C) Leaning forward in a chair with feet spread apart and elbows placed on
knees

D) Upright with head slightly flexed, with feet spread apart and shoulders
relaxed



Correct Answer: A low semi-reclining position with shoulders back



Rationale: A low semi-reclining position does not facilitate lung expansion or
diaphragmatic movement, offering no benefit for dyspnea relief. The tripod
position (leaning forward with arms supported) and upright positions help
improve breathing mechanics by allowing accessory muscle use and
maximizing diaphragmatic excursion.



4. A nurse is reviewing the results of a Mantoux tuberculin skin test for a
client with no known risk factors for TB. Which induration size is considered
positive?

A) 5 mm

B) 10 mm

C) 15 mm

D) 20 mm



Correct Answer: 15 mm

,Rationale: For a client with no known risk factors for TB, an induration of 15
mm or more is considered positive. Different cutoff values apply to high-risk
groups (e.g., ≥5 mm for HIV-positive clients, ≥10 mm for recent immigrants
and healthcare workers).



5. Which diagnostic test is NOT used to identify potential tuberculosis?

A) Sputum culture

B) Chest x-ray

C) Mantoux skin test

D) Saliva swab



Correct Answer: Saliva swab



Rationale: Saliva swab is not used to identify tuberculosis. Sputum culture,
chest x-ray, and Mantoux skin test are standard diagnostic tools for TB. A
saliva swab does not provide adequate specimens for TB testing.



6. A client with COPD is prescribed a long-acting bronchodilator. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding of the medication?

A) "I will use this medication when I have sudden shortness of breath."

B) "I will use this medication daily for long-term control of my symptoms."

C) "I can stop using this medication once my symptoms improve."

D) "This medication will cure my COPD."



Correct Answer: "I will use this medication daily for long-term control of my
symptoms."



Rationale: Long-acting bronchodilators are used for maintenance therapy in
COPD and should be taken daily, not as a rescue medication. They help

, manage chronic symptoms and improve quality of life but do not cure the
disease.



7. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which
instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

A) "Use this medication as a rescue inhaler for acute symptoms."

B) "Rinse your mouth with water after each use."

C) "This medication will work immediately to relieve bronchospasm."

D) "You can stop using this medication once you feel better."



Correct Answer: "Rinse your mouth with water after each use."



Rationale: Inhaled corticosteroids can cause oral candidiasis (thrush). Rinsing
the mouth with water after each use helps prevent this complication. These
medications are for long-term control, not acute relief, and should not be
stopped abruptly.



8. A client with asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which
assessment finding is most concerning and indicates a need for immediate
intervention?

A) Audible wheezing

B) Use of accessory muscles

C) Decreased wheezing with diminished breath sounds

D) Tachypnea



Correct Answer: Decreased wheezing with diminished breath sounds



Rationale: In a severe asthma exacerbation, a sudden decrease in wheezing
with diminished breath sounds is a concerning sign indicating airway

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NUR 2502
Course
NUR 2502

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