ATI PN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam &
ATI PN Management Proctored Exam 100
Questions with Answers and Rationales
CORRECT GRADED ALREDY GRADED A+
SECTION 1: MATERNAL NEWBORN CARE (Questions 1-50)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately after delivery. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A) Place identification bands on the newborn
B) Dry the newborn thoroughly
C) Administer vitamin K
D) Perform a complete physical assessment
Answer: B) Dry the newborn thoroughly
Rationale: Immediately after delivery, the priority action is to dry the newborn thoroughly to
prevent hypothermia. Newborns are at high risk for heat loss due to their large body surface
area, thin skin, and wet amniotic fluid. Drying stimulates the newborn and helps maintain
temperature stability. Identification bands, vitamin K administration, and physical assessment
are important but should occur after drying.
,Q2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. The newborn is jittery, has a weak
cry, and a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer intravenous dextrose
B) Initiate early oral feedings or gavage feeding
C) Place the newborn under a radiant warmer
D) Prepare for an exchange transfusion
Answer: B) Initiate early oral feedings or gavage feeding
Rationale: Hypoglycemia in a newborn is initially managed with early oral feeding; IV dextrose is
reserved for severe cases.
Q3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and has
polyhydramnios. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Total pregnancy weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb)
B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Fundal height of 34 cm (13.4 in)
Answer: B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
Rationale: Polyhydramnios is excessive amniotic fluid. Gastrointestinal malformations (e.g.,
esophageal atresia, duodenal atresia) prevent fetal swallowing, leading to accumulation of
amniotic fluid.
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion for severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B) Respiratory rate 16/min
C) Blood pressure 150/96 mm Hg
D) Urinary output 20 mL/hr
Answer: D) Urinary output 20 mL/hr
,Rationale: Urine output <30 mL/hr indicates inadequate renal perfusion and increased risk of
magnesium toxicity. Normal magnesium sulfate therapy requires monitoring of urine output,
respiratory rate, and deep tendon reflexes.
Q5. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 13 weeks of gestation about the treatment of
incompetent cervix with cervical cerclage. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should go to the hospital if I think I may be in labor."
B) "I should expect bright red bleeding while the cerclage is in place."
C) "I am sad that I won't be able to get pregnant again."
D) "I can resume having sex as soon as I feel up to it."
Answer: A) "I should go to the hospital if I think I may be in labor."
Rationale: Cervical cerclage prevents premature opening; signs of labor require immediate
evaluation.
Q6. A nurse is teaching a client who has pre-eclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via
continuous IV infusion about expected adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Feeling of warmth
C) Generalized pruritus
D) Hyperactivity
Answer: B) Feeling of warmth
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate commonly causes a feeling of warmth, flushing, and diaphoresis.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who reports a sudden, sharp, stabbing pain in
the lower abdomen accompanied by bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse notes a rigid,
board-like abdomen on palpation. Which of the following conditions should the nurse
suspect?
A) Placenta previa
B) Rupture of the membranes
, C) Abruptio placentae
D) Preterm labor
Answer: C) Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Sudden severe pain, rigid abdomen, and bleeding are classic signs of placental
abruption.
Q8. A nurse is calculating the expected date of birth (EDB) for a client whose last normal
menstrual period began on April 22. Using Naegele's rule, which of the following dates is
correct?
A) January 22
B) January 29
C) July 22
D) July 29
Answer: B) January 29
Rationale: Subtract 3 months from April 22 = January 22; add 7 days = January 29.
Q9. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum after a vaginal delivery. The nurse
notes a saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes and a fundus that is boggy and displaced to the
right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
B) Massage the fundus while applying gentle downward pressure
C) Administer methylergonovine as prescribed
D) Assist the client to the bathroom to void
Answer: B) Massage the fundus while applying gentle downward pressure
Rationale: A boggy, displaced fundus suggests uterine atony with a full bladder. Fundal massage
is the priority to reduce bleeding.
Q10. A nurse is teaching a client at 8 weeks of gestation about expected physiological changes
during the first trimester. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased blood pressure
ATI PN Management Proctored Exam 100
Questions with Answers and Rationales
CORRECT GRADED ALREDY GRADED A+
SECTION 1: MATERNAL NEWBORN CARE (Questions 1-50)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately after delivery. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A) Place identification bands on the newborn
B) Dry the newborn thoroughly
C) Administer vitamin K
D) Perform a complete physical assessment
Answer: B) Dry the newborn thoroughly
Rationale: Immediately after delivery, the priority action is to dry the newborn thoroughly to
prevent hypothermia. Newborns are at high risk for heat loss due to their large body surface
area, thin skin, and wet amniotic fluid. Drying stimulates the newborn and helps maintain
temperature stability. Identification bands, vitamin K administration, and physical assessment
are important but should occur after drying.
,Q2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. The newborn is jittery, has a weak
cry, and a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administer intravenous dextrose
B) Initiate early oral feedings or gavage feeding
C) Place the newborn under a radiant warmer
D) Prepare for an exchange transfusion
Answer: B) Initiate early oral feedings or gavage feeding
Rationale: Hypoglycemia in a newborn is initially managed with early oral feeding; IV dextrose is
reserved for severe cases.
Q3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and has
polyhydramnios. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Total pregnancy weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb)
B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Fundal height of 34 cm (13.4 in)
Answer: B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
Rationale: Polyhydramnios is excessive amniotic fluid. Gastrointestinal malformations (e.g.,
esophageal atresia, duodenal atresia) prevent fetal swallowing, leading to accumulation of
amniotic fluid.
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion for severe pre-eclampsia. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B) Respiratory rate 16/min
C) Blood pressure 150/96 mm Hg
D) Urinary output 20 mL/hr
Answer: D) Urinary output 20 mL/hr
,Rationale: Urine output <30 mL/hr indicates inadequate renal perfusion and increased risk of
magnesium toxicity. Normal magnesium sulfate therapy requires monitoring of urine output,
respiratory rate, and deep tendon reflexes.
Q5. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 13 weeks of gestation about the treatment of
incompetent cervix with cervical cerclage. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should go to the hospital if I think I may be in labor."
B) "I should expect bright red bleeding while the cerclage is in place."
C) "I am sad that I won't be able to get pregnant again."
D) "I can resume having sex as soon as I feel up to it."
Answer: A) "I should go to the hospital if I think I may be in labor."
Rationale: Cervical cerclage prevents premature opening; signs of labor require immediate
evaluation.
Q6. A nurse is teaching a client who has pre-eclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via
continuous IV infusion about expected adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Feeling of warmth
C) Generalized pruritus
D) Hyperactivity
Answer: B) Feeling of warmth
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate commonly causes a feeling of warmth, flushing, and diaphoresis.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who reports a sudden, sharp, stabbing pain in
the lower abdomen accompanied by bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse notes a rigid,
board-like abdomen on palpation. Which of the following conditions should the nurse
suspect?
A) Placenta previa
B) Rupture of the membranes
, C) Abruptio placentae
D) Preterm labor
Answer: C) Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Sudden severe pain, rigid abdomen, and bleeding are classic signs of placental
abruption.
Q8. A nurse is calculating the expected date of birth (EDB) for a client whose last normal
menstrual period began on April 22. Using Naegele's rule, which of the following dates is
correct?
A) January 22
B) January 29
C) July 22
D) July 29
Answer: B) January 29
Rationale: Subtract 3 months from April 22 = January 22; add 7 days = January 29.
Q9. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum after a vaginal delivery. The nurse
notes a saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes and a fundus that is boggy and displaced to the
right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
B) Massage the fundus while applying gentle downward pressure
C) Administer methylergonovine as prescribed
D) Assist the client to the bathroom to void
Answer: B) Massage the fundus while applying gentle downward pressure
Rationale: A boggy, displaced fundus suggests uterine atony with a full bladder. Fundal massage
is the priority to reduce bleeding.
Q10. A nurse is teaching a client at 8 weeks of gestation about expected physiological changes
during the first trimester. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased blood pressure
