Chamberlain University - 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified
Questions
NR667 CEA Final Exam 2026-2027 Questions and Answers Already Graded A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated
Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam prep document for the NR667 CEA Final Exam (Nurse Practitioner
Capstone) at Chamberlain University contains 250 verified questions covering all core competencies.
Designed to reflect the 2026/2027 academic year, it includes evidence-based rationales and distractor
explanations. Ideal for final exam review, this resource ensures readiness for advanced practice nursing
certification.
Key Features:
Clinical decision-making and diagnostic reasoning
Pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic management
Health promotion and disease prevention across the lifespan
Ethical and legal considerations in advanced practice
Interprofessional collaboration and patient-centered care
Evidence-based practice and quality improvement
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 AACN Essentials and NP competencies
- Incorporated latest clinical practice guidelines (e.g., USPSTF, AHA, ADA)
- Revised rationales with current evidence from peer-reviewed literature
- Added new questions on telehealth and population health management
- Enhanced distractor explanations to address common misconceptions
Abstract:
The NR667 CEA Final Exam serves as the capstone assessment for the Nurse Practitioner program at
Chamberlain University, evaluating synthesis of advanced practice knowledge and clinical reasoning. This
document provides 250 rigorously verified questions aligned with the 2026/2027 curriculum, covering domains
such as health assessment, diagnosis, management, and professional roles. Each question includes a detailed
rationale explaining the correct answer and analysis of incorrect options, promoting deep understanding. The
content reflects current evidence-based guidelines and national competencies for family, adult-gerontology, and
psychiatric mental health nurse practitioners. Designed for comprehensive review, this resource supports students
in achieving high-stakes exam success and readiness for board certification. Emphasis is placed on clinical
decision-making, ethical considerations, and interprofessional collaboration. Updated annually, this edition
incorporates the latest research and practice standards to ensure relevance and accuracy.
Keywords:
NR667 CEA Final Exam, Nurse Practitioner Capstone, Chamberlain University, 2026/2027, 250 questions,
Graded A+, Evidence-based rationales, Advanced practice nursing
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a comprehensive rationale explaining why it is correct, along
with analysis of each distractor to clarify common errors. Rationales cite current guidelines and literature to
reinforce evidence-based practice.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, Aligned with 2026/2027 Chamberlain University NP curriculum
Reflects AACN Essentials and NONPF competencies
Incorporates latest clinical practice guidelines (USPSTF, AHA, ADA, etc.)
Includes rationales with peer-reviewed references
Covers all core NP role domains: clinical, ethical, legal, and professional
Designed for final exam and board certification preparation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health Assessment & Diagnostic 1-50 History taking, physical exam, differential 20%
Reasoning diagnosis, diagnostic tests
Pharmacologic & 51-100 Medication selection, dosing, monitoring, 20%
Non-Pharmacologic adverse effects, lifestyle interventions
Management
Acute & Chronic Disease 101-150 Common conditions across lifespan, 20%
Management evidence-based treatment, follow-up
Health Promotion & Disease 151-180 Screening, immunization, counseling, risk 12%
Prevention reduction
Professional Roles, Ethics & 181-210 Scope of practice, informed consent, 12%
Legal Issues confidentiality, interprofessional
collaboration
Evidence-Based Practice & 211-250 Research appraisal, clinical guidelines, 16%
Quality Improvement patient safety, outcomes measurement
Page 2
,Q1. A 45-year-old patient with a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension presents with sudden
onset of severe right flank pain radiating to the groin, accompanied by nausea and hematuria.
Urinalysis shows pH 6.5, specific gravity 1.020, and numerous red blood cells. Non-contrast CT
reveals a 6 mm radiopaque stone in the proximal ureter. The patient reports a diet high in animal
protein and low in calcium. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management to
reduce the risk of recurrence?
A. Increase dietary calcium intake and prescribe thiazide diuretics
B. Reduce dietary sodium and animal protein, and increase fluid intake
C. Prescribe allopurinol and restrict oxalate-rich foods
D. Administer potassium citrate and recommend low-purine diet
Correct Answer: B. Reduce dietary sodium and animal protein, and increase fluid intake
Rationale: The stone is likely calcium oxalate given radiopacity and diet history. Increased fluid intake
dilutes stone-forming solutes, while reducing sodium and animal protein decreases calcium excretion and
uric acid load. Thiazides are effective for hypercalciuria, but increasing dietary calcium may
paradoxically reduce oxalate absorption; however, first-line prevention is dietary modification and
hydration. Allopurinol targets uric acid stones, and potassium citrate is for hypocitraturia, not indicated
here.
Why Wrong:
A - Thiazides may be used if hypercalciuria is confirmed, but increasing dietary calcium is not
first-line and could be misinterpreted; the primary intervention is hydration and dietary modification.
C - Allopurinol is specific to uric acid stones; this stone is radiopaque and likely calcium-based, not
uric acid.
D - Potassium citrate is used for hypocitraturia or uric acid stones; low-purine diet targets uric acid
stones, not calcium oxalate.
Reference: Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) 2024 Guidelines for Stone
Prevention; UpToDate, Nephrolithiasis, 2025.
Q2. In a patient with moderate persistent asthma, step-up therapy is being considered due to
inadequate symptom control despite low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) use. The patient has a
forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 70% predicted and reports nighttime awakenings 3
times per week. Which of the following medication adjustments is most aligned with current Global
Initiative for Asthma (GINA) 2025 guidelines?
A. Increase ICS to medium dose and add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) as a separate inhaler
B. Switch from low-dose ICS to a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) monotherapy
C. Add a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) while continuing low-dose ICS
D. Use a combination inhaler of low-dose ICS-formoterol as both maintenance and reliever therapy
Correct Answer: D. Use a combination inhaler of low-dose ICS-formoterol as both maintenance and
reliever therapy
Rationale: GINA 2025 recommends for moderate persistent asthma (Step 3) the use of low-dose
ICS-formoterol as a single maintenance and reliever therapy (SMART) to reduce exacerbations. Option A
is outdated; GINA now prefers combination ICS-formoterol over increasing ICS dose plus separate
LABA. LTRA monotherapy is less effective than ICS. Adding LAMA is Step 4 or 5 therapy.
Why Wrong:
A - While increasing ICS and adding LABA is a traditional step-up, GINA 2025 favors
ICS-formoterol as both maintenance and reliever for better outcomes.
B - LTRA is inferior to ICS for asthma control and is not recommended as monotherapy for
moderate persistent asthma.
Page 3
, C - LAMA addition is reserved for Step 4 or 5 after optimizing ICS/LABA, not first step-up from
low-dose ICS.
Reference: Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) 2025 Report, Chapter 4: Stepwise Approach to Asthma Management.
Page 4