AOCNP TEST REVIEW 2026 LATEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS RATED 100%
CORRECT!!
SECTION 1: CANCER CONTINUUM (46 Questions)
Screening, Prevention, Assessment, Diagnosis, Staging, Survivorship, End-of-
Life Care
Q1: A 45-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer (mother
diagnosed at age 42) presents for risk assessment. According to current
guidelines, at what age should breast cancer screening begin for this high-risk
patient?
A. Age 50
B. Age 40 or 10 years before earliest affected relative [CORRECT]
C. Age 55
D. Age 60
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because current guidelines recommend breast cancer
screening begin at age 40 or 10 years before the age of the earliest affected
relative for high-risk women, whichever comes first. Standard oncology advanced
practice requires individualized risk assessment for hereditary cancer
syndromes.
Q2: Which hereditary cancer syndrome is characterized by microsatellite
instability and increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, gastric, and ovarian
cancers?
A. Hereditary Breast and Ovarian Cancer (HBOC) syndrome
B. Lynch syndrome [CORRECT]
C. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
D. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Correct because Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal
cancer) is caused by mismatch repair gene mutations (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6,
PMS2, EPCAM) resulting in microsatellite instability. Per ONCC AOCNP Test
Content Outline, Lynch syndrome and FAP are inherited colorectal cancer
syndromes with distinct genetic mechanisms.
Q3: A patient with suspected melanoma presents with a pigmented lesion. Which
assessment tool guides evaluation of suspicious skin lesions?
A. ABCDE rule [CORRECT]
B. Glasgow Coma Scale
C. Braden Scale
D. Norton Scale
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity,
Color variation, Diameter >6mm, Evolution) is the standard clinical tool for
melanoma detection. Per ONCC AOCNP Test Content Outline, this mnemonic
guides systematic assessment of pigmented lesions.
Q4: Which screening test is recommended for average-risk adults beginning at
age 45 for colorectal cancer detection?
A. Annual fecal occult blood test only
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years, annual FIT, or other approved modalities
[CORRECT]
C. No screening until age 50
D. CT colonography every 5 years only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because current guidelines recommend colorectal cancer
screening begin at age 45 for average-risk adults using colonoscopy every 10
years, annual fecal immunochemical testing (FIT), or other approved modalities.
Clinical guidelines indicate multiple acceptable strategies based on patient
preference and risk.
Q5: A patient with stage II colon cancer is being staged using the TNM system.
The pathology report indicates tumor invasion through the muscularis propria
into pericolorectal tissues with no regional lymph node involvement and no
distant metastasis. What is the correct pathologic stage?
,A. Stage I
B. Stage IIA [CORRECT]
C. Stage IIIA
D. Stage IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because pathologic staging (pTNM) for colon cancer with T3
(invasion through muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues), N0 (no regional
lymph node involvement), and M0 (no distant metastasis) corresponds to Stage
IIA. Standard oncology advanced practice requires understanding that staging
determines prognosis and treatment planning.
Q6: Which performance status scale is most commonly used in oncology clinical
trials to assess patient functional capacity and determine treatment eligibility?
A. Karnofsky Performance Status (KPS) only
B. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scale [CORRECT]
C. Barthel Index
D. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the ECOG performance status scale is the most
widely used instrument in oncology clinical trials to assess functional capacity
and treatment eligibility. Clinical guidelines indicate ECOG scores of 0-2 typically
support aggressive therapy while scores of 3-4 may indicate need for modified
approaches.
Q7: A 38-year-old woman with BRCA1 mutation is considering risk-reducing
surgery. Which procedure is most appropriate for reducing ovarian cancer risk in
this patient?
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy only
B. Risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (RRBSO) [CORRECT]
C. Ovarian cystectomy
D. Tubal ligation
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Correct because risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
(RRBSO) is the standard surgical intervention for BRCA1/2 mutation carriers to
reduce ovarian cancer risk. Per ONCC AOCNP Test Content Outline, timing of
RRBSO should consider completion of childbearing.
Q8: A patient completing curative-intent treatment for breast cancer is
transitioning to survivorship care. Which component is essential in a
comprehensive survivorship care plan?
A. Detailed surgical technique documentation only
B. Treatment summary, surveillance recommendations, and late effects
counseling [CORRECT]
C. List of all hospital staff only
D. No follow-up needed after 1 year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because comprehensive survivorship care plans include
treatment summary, surveillance schedule for recurrence, screening for
subsequent malignancies, late effects counseling, and care coordination.
Standard oncology advanced practice requires transition planning from active
treatment to long-term follow-up.
Q9: During end-of-life care discussions, which principle emphasizes aligning
treatment decisions with patient values and goals?
A. Paternalistic decision-making
B. Shared decision-making and goals of care [CORRECT]
C. Exclusive family decision-making without patient input
D. Physician-directed treatment only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because shared decision-making in end-of-life care requires
understanding patient values, goals, and preferences to align treatment with what
matters most to the patient. Clinical guidelines indicate this approach improves
quality of life and reduces unwanted interventions.
Q10: Which population is at highest risk for cancer screening disparities due to
socioeconomic and geographic barriers?
A. Urban professionals with comprehensive insurance
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS RATED 100%
CORRECT!!
SECTION 1: CANCER CONTINUUM (46 Questions)
Screening, Prevention, Assessment, Diagnosis, Staging, Survivorship, End-of-
Life Care
Q1: A 45-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer (mother
diagnosed at age 42) presents for risk assessment. According to current
guidelines, at what age should breast cancer screening begin for this high-risk
patient?
A. Age 50
B. Age 40 or 10 years before earliest affected relative [CORRECT]
C. Age 55
D. Age 60
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because current guidelines recommend breast cancer
screening begin at age 40 or 10 years before the age of the earliest affected
relative for high-risk women, whichever comes first. Standard oncology advanced
practice requires individualized risk assessment for hereditary cancer
syndromes.
Q2: Which hereditary cancer syndrome is characterized by microsatellite
instability and increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, gastric, and ovarian
cancers?
A. Hereditary Breast and Ovarian Cancer (HBOC) syndrome
B. Lynch syndrome [CORRECT]
C. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
D. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Correct because Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal
cancer) is caused by mismatch repair gene mutations (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6,
PMS2, EPCAM) resulting in microsatellite instability. Per ONCC AOCNP Test
Content Outline, Lynch syndrome and FAP are inherited colorectal cancer
syndromes with distinct genetic mechanisms.
Q3: A patient with suspected melanoma presents with a pigmented lesion. Which
assessment tool guides evaluation of suspicious skin lesions?
A. ABCDE rule [CORRECT]
B. Glasgow Coma Scale
C. Braden Scale
D. Norton Scale
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity,
Color variation, Diameter >6mm, Evolution) is the standard clinical tool for
melanoma detection. Per ONCC AOCNP Test Content Outline, this mnemonic
guides systematic assessment of pigmented lesions.
Q4: Which screening test is recommended for average-risk adults beginning at
age 45 for colorectal cancer detection?
A. Annual fecal occult blood test only
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years, annual FIT, or other approved modalities
[CORRECT]
C. No screening until age 50
D. CT colonography every 5 years only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because current guidelines recommend colorectal cancer
screening begin at age 45 for average-risk adults using colonoscopy every 10
years, annual fecal immunochemical testing (FIT), or other approved modalities.
Clinical guidelines indicate multiple acceptable strategies based on patient
preference and risk.
Q5: A patient with stage II colon cancer is being staged using the TNM system.
The pathology report indicates tumor invasion through the muscularis propria
into pericolorectal tissues with no regional lymph node involvement and no
distant metastasis. What is the correct pathologic stage?
,A. Stage I
B. Stage IIA [CORRECT]
C. Stage IIIA
D. Stage IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because pathologic staging (pTNM) for colon cancer with T3
(invasion through muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues), N0 (no regional
lymph node involvement), and M0 (no distant metastasis) corresponds to Stage
IIA. Standard oncology advanced practice requires understanding that staging
determines prognosis and treatment planning.
Q6: Which performance status scale is most commonly used in oncology clinical
trials to assess patient functional capacity and determine treatment eligibility?
A. Karnofsky Performance Status (KPS) only
B. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scale [CORRECT]
C. Barthel Index
D. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the ECOG performance status scale is the most
widely used instrument in oncology clinical trials to assess functional capacity
and treatment eligibility. Clinical guidelines indicate ECOG scores of 0-2 typically
support aggressive therapy while scores of 3-4 may indicate need for modified
approaches.
Q7: A 38-year-old woman with BRCA1 mutation is considering risk-reducing
surgery. Which procedure is most appropriate for reducing ovarian cancer risk in
this patient?
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy only
B. Risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (RRBSO) [CORRECT]
C. Ovarian cystectomy
D. Tubal ligation
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Correct because risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
(RRBSO) is the standard surgical intervention for BRCA1/2 mutation carriers to
reduce ovarian cancer risk. Per ONCC AOCNP Test Content Outline, timing of
RRBSO should consider completion of childbearing.
Q8: A patient completing curative-intent treatment for breast cancer is
transitioning to survivorship care. Which component is essential in a
comprehensive survivorship care plan?
A. Detailed surgical technique documentation only
B. Treatment summary, surveillance recommendations, and late effects
counseling [CORRECT]
C. List of all hospital staff only
D. No follow-up needed after 1 year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because comprehensive survivorship care plans include
treatment summary, surveillance schedule for recurrence, screening for
subsequent malignancies, late effects counseling, and care coordination.
Standard oncology advanced practice requires transition planning from active
treatment to long-term follow-up.
Q9: During end-of-life care discussions, which principle emphasizes aligning
treatment decisions with patient values and goals?
A. Paternalistic decision-making
B. Shared decision-making and goals of care [CORRECT]
C. Exclusive family decision-making without patient input
D. Physician-directed treatment only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because shared decision-making in end-of-life care requires
understanding patient values, goals, and preferences to align treatment with what
matters most to the patient. Clinical guidelines indicate this approach improves
quality of life and reduces unwanted interventions.
Q10: Which population is at highest risk for cancer screening disparities due to
socioeconomic and geographic barriers?
A. Urban professionals with comprehensive insurance
