WGU D115 COMPLETE TESTBANK | Advanced Applied
Pathophysiology | Questions And Answers | 2026
|graded A+
,1 Which cellular adaptation is most likely in the left ventricular
myocardium after years of uncontrolled systemic hypertension?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chronic increased afterload causes myocyte
enlargement (hypertrophy) to generate higher contractile force;
hyperplasia is rare in cardiac muscle, atrophy is reduction in
size, and metaplasia is change in cell type.
2 A 55-year-old patient with long-standing diabetes presents with
a nonhealing foot ulcer. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most
directly explains poor wound healing in diabetes?
A. Increased collagen deposition from fibroblasts
B. Hyperactive neutrophil function
C. Microvascular dysfunction and impaired perfusion
D. Excessive angiogenesis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Diabetes causes microvascular disease and
reduced tissue perfusion impairing oxygen and nutrient
delivery; neutrophil function is often impaired, collagen
deposition may be abnormal, and angiogenesis is usually
reduced, not excessive.
3 During ischemia-reperfusion injury, which process primarily
generates additional cellular damage on reperfusion?
A. ATP restoration only
,B. Free radical (reactive oxygen species) generation
C. Immediate resolution of inflammation
D. Decreased intracellular calcium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Reperfusion causes burst of reactive oxygen species
that damage membranes and proteins; ATP is partially restored
but oxidative stress predominates, inflammation increases, and
intracellular calcium often rises.
4 Which mediator is most responsible for increasing vascular
permeability and vasodilation during acute inflammation?
A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B. Histamine
C. Interferon-gamma
D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Histamine from mast cells causes immediate
vasodilation and increased permeability; IL-2 and interferon-
gamma are lymphocyte cytokines, and erythropoietin regulates
erythropoiesis.
5 A patient develops granulomatous inflammation with caseous
necrosis in the lung. Which organism is classically associated with
this pattern?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Candida albicans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: B
, Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis induces a T-cell–
mediated granulomatous response often with caseous necrosis;
the other organisms produce different inflammatory patterns.
6 Which hypersensitivity reaction explains immune complex–
mediated glomerulonephritis after a streptococcal infection?
A. Type I (IgE mediated)
B. Type II (antibody-mediated cytotoxic)
C. Type III (immune complex deposition)
D. Type IV (T-cell mediated)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis results from
deposition of antigen–antibody complexes in glomeruli (Type
III); Type II targets cell-surface antigens, Type I involves IgE,
and Type IV is delayed T-cell mediated.
7 In the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS),
angiotensin II's primary immediate effect is:
A. Vasodilation of arterioles
B. Vasoconstriction and stimulation of aldosterone release
C. Decrease in sympathetic tone
D. Inhibition of ADH release
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and
stimulates aldosterone secretion causing sodium and water
retention; it increases sympathetic tone rather than decreasing
it.
Pathophysiology | Questions And Answers | 2026
|graded A+
,1 Which cellular adaptation is most likely in the left ventricular
myocardium after years of uncontrolled systemic hypertension?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chronic increased afterload causes myocyte
enlargement (hypertrophy) to generate higher contractile force;
hyperplasia is rare in cardiac muscle, atrophy is reduction in
size, and metaplasia is change in cell type.
2 A 55-year-old patient with long-standing diabetes presents with
a nonhealing foot ulcer. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most
directly explains poor wound healing in diabetes?
A. Increased collagen deposition from fibroblasts
B. Hyperactive neutrophil function
C. Microvascular dysfunction and impaired perfusion
D. Excessive angiogenesis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Diabetes causes microvascular disease and
reduced tissue perfusion impairing oxygen and nutrient
delivery; neutrophil function is often impaired, collagen
deposition may be abnormal, and angiogenesis is usually
reduced, not excessive.
3 During ischemia-reperfusion injury, which process primarily
generates additional cellular damage on reperfusion?
A. ATP restoration only
,B. Free radical (reactive oxygen species) generation
C. Immediate resolution of inflammation
D. Decreased intracellular calcium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Reperfusion causes burst of reactive oxygen species
that damage membranes and proteins; ATP is partially restored
but oxidative stress predominates, inflammation increases, and
intracellular calcium often rises.
4 Which mediator is most responsible for increasing vascular
permeability and vasodilation during acute inflammation?
A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B. Histamine
C. Interferon-gamma
D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Histamine from mast cells causes immediate
vasodilation and increased permeability; IL-2 and interferon-
gamma are lymphocyte cytokines, and erythropoietin regulates
erythropoiesis.
5 A patient develops granulomatous inflammation with caseous
necrosis in the lung. Which organism is classically associated with
this pattern?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Candida albicans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: B
, Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis induces a T-cell–
mediated granulomatous response often with caseous necrosis;
the other organisms produce different inflammatory patterns.
6 Which hypersensitivity reaction explains immune complex–
mediated glomerulonephritis after a streptococcal infection?
A. Type I (IgE mediated)
B. Type II (antibody-mediated cytotoxic)
C. Type III (immune complex deposition)
D. Type IV (T-cell mediated)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis results from
deposition of antigen–antibody complexes in glomeruli (Type
III); Type II targets cell-surface antigens, Type I involves IgE,
and Type IV is delayed T-cell mediated.
7 In the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS),
angiotensin II's primary immediate effect is:
A. Vasodilation of arterioles
B. Vasoconstriction and stimulation of aldosterone release
C. Decrease in sympathetic tone
D. Inhibition of ADH release
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and
stimulates aldosterone secretion causing sodium and water
retention; it increases sympathetic tone rather than decreasing
it.
