Pre-Predictor Exam NSG6998 South University FNP REVISED AND UPDATED FOR 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!

Pre-Predictor Exam NSG6998 South
University FNP REVISED AND UPDATED
FOR 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW!!

NSG6998 Pre-Predictor Comprehensive Exam
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Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question.
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Section 1: Cardiovascular & Hematology
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1. A 68-year-
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old male with a history of hypertension presents with complaints of gradual onset shortnes
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s of breath and non-
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productive cough over the past 3 months. On auscultation, you hear an S3 gallop and bibas
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ilar crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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• A) Acute bronchitis
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• B) Asthma exacerbation
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• C) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
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• D) Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction
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Rationale: The gradual onset of symptoms, S3 gallop (indicating volume overload), and crackles poin
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t toward heart failure. An S3 is classic for systolic dysfunction (HFrEF), but the question describes gra
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dual onset; however, in older adults with hypertension, HFpEF is very common. The presence of an S3
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actually indicates HFrEF, so the best answer here is C. (Correction: The correct answer should be Hea
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rt failure with reduced ejection fraction if S3 is present. Let's adjust the options).
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(REVISED QUESTION 1) jh jh




1. A 68-year-
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old male with a history of hypertension presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion and
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,orthopnea. On exam, JVD is noted, and auscultation reveals an S3 gallop. What is the most
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likely pathophysiological finding?
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• A) Decreased left ventricular compliance
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• B) Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction
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• C) Constrictive pericarditis
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• D) Severe aortic stenosis
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Rationale: An S3 gallop is a hallmark of systolic dysfunction (reduced ejection fraction) due to rapid v
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entricular filling in a dilated, failing ventricle.
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2. A 55-year-old female with a history of type 2 diabetes presents with a 2-
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day history of progressive swelling and redness in her left lower leg. She reports a fever of
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101.5°F. On exam, the leg is warm, erythematous, and tender to palpation. There is no crepi
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tus. What is the first-line treatment?
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• A) Vancomycin 15 mg/kg IV
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• B) Cephalexin 500 mg PO QID
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• C) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID
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• D) Clindamycin 300 mg PO QID
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Rationale: This is classic cellulitis. In the context of diabetes or MRSA risk, Doxycycline covers commu
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nity-acquired MRSA and strep species. Cephalexin is for non-purulent cellulitis without MRSA risk.
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3. A patient with Atrial Fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-
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VASc score of 4. Which of the following is the most appropriate anticoagulant to prevent st
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roke in a patient with severe renal impairment (CrCl < 15 mL/min)?
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• A) Apixabanjh




• B) Rivaroxaban
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• C) Dabigatran
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• D) Warfarin jh




Rationale: Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are contraindicated in severe renal impairment (CrCl
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< 15) except for apixaban (which is used in ESRD but not preferred). Warfarin is the only safe option f
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or CrCl < 15.
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,4. A 72-year-
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old male is started on Lisinopril for hypertension. One week later, he calls reporting a dry c
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ough and angioedema of his lips. What is the best alternative medication?
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• A) Amlodipine
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• B) Hydrochlorothiazide
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• C) Losartan
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• D) Metoprolol
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Rationale: Angioedema and cough are classic ACE inhibitor side effects. An ARB (Losartan) is the best
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substitute, as it has a lower risk of cough/angioedema.
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Section 2: Pulmonology & ENT jh jh jh jh




5. A 45-year-
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old asthmatic patient is using their Albuterol inhaler daily. Which of the following changes
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to their medication regimen would best manage underlying airway inflammation?
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• A) Increase Albuterol dose to 2 puffs QID
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• B) Add Montelukast (Singulair)
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• C) Add Low-dose Inhaled Corticosteroid (Fluticasone)
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• D) Add Theophylline
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Rationale: Daily rescue inhaler use indicates poor control. Inhaled corticosteroids are the cornerstone
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of anti-inflammatory therapy for persistent asthma.
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6. A 6-month-
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old infant presents with a barking cough, stridor, and hoarseness. Symptoms are worse at n
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ight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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• A) Epiglottitis
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• B) Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
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• C) Bronchiolitis
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• D) Foreign body aspiration
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, Rationale: The classic "barking" cough and stridor in an infant, worse at night, is pathognomonic for
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Croup (viral). Epiglottitis presents with drooling and tripod positioning.
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7. A patient with COPD has an FEV1/FVC ratio of 55%. They are currently on a LABA/LAMA
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combination. They continue to have exacerbations. Which of the following should be adde
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d?

• A) Theophylline
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• B) Montelukast
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• C) Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS)
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• D) Cromolyn Sodium
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Rationale: For GOLD Group E (frequent exacerbations), the addition of an ICS to LABA/LAMA (Triple
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Therapy) is recommended. jh jh




Section 3: Endocrinology & Metabolic
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8. A 52-year-
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old obese female presents with acanthosis nigricans on her neck. Fasting blood glucose is 1
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30 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step?
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• A) Start Metformin immediately
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• B) Fasting lipid panel
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• C) Repeat fasting glucose and perform Hemoglobin A1c
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• D) Oral glucose tolerance test
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Rationale: A single fasting glucose of 126+ is diagnostic for diabetes, but guidelines recommend conf
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irming with a repeat test or A1c before diagnosing or treating.
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9. A patient is started on Levothyroxine for newly diagnosed hypothyroidism. When should
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the TSH level be rechecked?
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• A) 2 weeks jh jh




• B) 6–8 weeks
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• C) 3 monthsjh jh




• D) 1 year jh jh