ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
Assessment 2026/2027 Questions and
Correct Answers
Q1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A) White blood cell count 15,000/mm³
B) Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
C) Rubella titer < 1:8
D) Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C) Rubella titer < 1:8
Rationale: A rubella titer of <1:8 indicates non-immunity to rubella. The client should receive
the MMR vaccine immediately postpartum, as it is a live vaccine contraindicated during
pregnancy. Elevated WBCs (up to 16,000) and mild anemia are expected physiological changes
in pregnancy .
Q2. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes during pregnancy. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A) "My heart rate will slow down because the baby is using my blood."
B) "I may feel short of breath because the baby pushes up on my lungs."
C) "My blood pressure will drop significantly in the third trimester."
D) "I will have increased urine output in the third trimester."
Correct Answer: B) "I may feel short of breath because the baby pushes up on my lungs."
Rationale: As the uterus expands, it pushes against the diaphragm, causing dyspnea. Heart rate
increases (not slows) by 10-15 bpm. Blood pressure slightly decreases in the second trimester,
not significantly in the third. Urine output does not typically increase in the third trimester .
,Q3. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation. Which finding should the nurse report to
the provider immediately?
A) Swelling of the feet and ankles in the evening
B) Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
C) Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
D) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
Correct Answer: B) Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
Rationale: A persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, especially in the third
trimester, is a classic sign of preeclampsia until proven otherwise. It requires immediate
assessment of blood pressure and urine protein .
Q4. A nurse is performing a fundal height measurement. At 24 weeks gestation, the fundus
should be located at which landmark?
A) Symphysis pubis
B) Xiphoid process
C) Umbilicus
D) Halfway between symphysis and umbilicus
Correct Answer: C) Umbilicus
Rationale: At 20 weeks, the fundus is at the umbilicus. At 24 weeks, it is approximately 2-4 cm
above the umbilicus. The question tests knowledge that 20 weeks = umbilicus; 24 weeks is just
above .
Q5. A primigravida client at 38 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of bright red vaginal
bleeding. She denies pain. Her vital signs are BP 110/70, HR 90, RR 18. What is the priority
nursing action?
A) Perform a vaginal exam to determine dilation
B) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C) Apply an external fetal monitor
D) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
,Correct Answer: C) Apply an external fetal monitor
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is classic for placenta
previa. A vaginal exam is contraindicated as it can cause severe hemorrhage. The priority is to
assess fetal well-being with external monitoring .
Q6. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with gestational diabetes. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A) "I should avoid all carbohydrates during pregnancy."
B) "I should spread my carbohydrate intake throughout the day."
C) "I only need to check my blood sugar once a week."
D) "My baby may have low blood sugar after delivery."
Correct Answer: B) "I should spread my carbohydrate intake throughout the day."
Rationale: Carbohydrates are necessary for fetal growth and maternal energy. The client should
be taught to manage carbohydrate intake, not avoid them entirely, and to spread them
throughout the day. The baby may develop hypoglycemia after birth, requiring monitoring .
Q7. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with
preeclampsia. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A) Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
B) 1+ proteinuria
C) Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
D) Epigastric pain
Correct Answer: D) Epigastric pain
Rationale: Epigastric pain (or right upper quadrant pain) indicates liver capsule distension and is
a sign of severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome. This requires immediate provider notification
and likely delivery .
, Q8. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the
nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A) Low, dull backache
B) Menstrual-like cramping
C) Increased vaginal discharge
D) Urinary frequency
E) Fetal movement counting
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Signs of preterm labor include low backache, menstrual-like cramping, increased
vaginal discharge, and urinary frequency. Fetal movement counting is important for monitoring
fetal well-being but is not a sign of preterm labor .
Q9. A client asks the nurse about taking over-the-counter medications during pregnancy. Which
response is most appropriate?
A) "It is safe to take any medication labeled 'natural'."
B) "Avoid all medications until the third trimester."
C) "Consult your provider before taking any medication, including OTC drugs."
D) "You can take ibuprofen for headaches."
Correct Answer: C) "Consult your provider before taking any medication, including OTC
drugs."
Rationale: Many OTC medications (including NSAIDs like ibuprofen) are contraindicated during
certain trimesters. The safest approach is to consult the provider before any medication use .
Q10. A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal record. The client's obstetrical history includes: G4,
T2, P0, A1, L3. Which of the following correctly interprets this?
A) The client has had 4 pregnancies, 2 term births, 0 preterm births, 1 abortion, and 3 living
children
B) The client has had 4 pregnancies, 2 term births, 1 preterm birth, 0 abortions, and 3 living
children
Assessment 2026/2027 Questions and
Correct Answers
Q1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A) White blood cell count 15,000/mm³
B) Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
C) Rubella titer < 1:8
D) Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C) Rubella titer < 1:8
Rationale: A rubella titer of <1:8 indicates non-immunity to rubella. The client should receive
the MMR vaccine immediately postpartum, as it is a live vaccine contraindicated during
pregnancy. Elevated WBCs (up to 16,000) and mild anemia are expected physiological changes
in pregnancy .
Q2. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes during pregnancy. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A) "My heart rate will slow down because the baby is using my blood."
B) "I may feel short of breath because the baby pushes up on my lungs."
C) "My blood pressure will drop significantly in the third trimester."
D) "I will have increased urine output in the third trimester."
Correct Answer: B) "I may feel short of breath because the baby pushes up on my lungs."
Rationale: As the uterus expands, it pushes against the diaphragm, causing dyspnea. Heart rate
increases (not slows) by 10-15 bpm. Blood pressure slightly decreases in the second trimester,
not significantly in the third. Urine output does not typically increase in the third trimester .
,Q3. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation. Which finding should the nurse report to
the provider immediately?
A) Swelling of the feet and ankles in the evening
B) Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
C) Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
D) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
Correct Answer: B) Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
Rationale: A persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, especially in the third
trimester, is a classic sign of preeclampsia until proven otherwise. It requires immediate
assessment of blood pressure and urine protein .
Q4. A nurse is performing a fundal height measurement. At 24 weeks gestation, the fundus
should be located at which landmark?
A) Symphysis pubis
B) Xiphoid process
C) Umbilicus
D) Halfway between symphysis and umbilicus
Correct Answer: C) Umbilicus
Rationale: At 20 weeks, the fundus is at the umbilicus. At 24 weeks, it is approximately 2-4 cm
above the umbilicus. The question tests knowledge that 20 weeks = umbilicus; 24 weeks is just
above .
Q5. A primigravida client at 38 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset of bright red vaginal
bleeding. She denies pain. Her vital signs are BP 110/70, HR 90, RR 18. What is the priority
nursing action?
A) Perform a vaginal exam to determine dilation
B) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C) Apply an external fetal monitor
D) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
,Correct Answer: C) Apply an external fetal monitor
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is classic for placenta
previa. A vaginal exam is contraindicated as it can cause severe hemorrhage. The priority is to
assess fetal well-being with external monitoring .
Q6. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with gestational diabetes. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A) "I should avoid all carbohydrates during pregnancy."
B) "I should spread my carbohydrate intake throughout the day."
C) "I only need to check my blood sugar once a week."
D) "My baby may have low blood sugar after delivery."
Correct Answer: B) "I should spread my carbohydrate intake throughout the day."
Rationale: Carbohydrates are necessary for fetal growth and maternal energy. The client should
be taught to manage carbohydrate intake, not avoid them entirely, and to spread them
throughout the day. The baby may develop hypoglycemia after birth, requiring monitoring .
Q7. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with
preeclampsia. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A) Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
B) 1+ proteinuria
C) Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
D) Epigastric pain
Correct Answer: D) Epigastric pain
Rationale: Epigastric pain (or right upper quadrant pain) indicates liver capsule distension and is
a sign of severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome. This requires immediate provider notification
and likely delivery .
, Q8. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the
nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A) Low, dull backache
B) Menstrual-like cramping
C) Increased vaginal discharge
D) Urinary frequency
E) Fetal movement counting
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Signs of preterm labor include low backache, menstrual-like cramping, increased
vaginal discharge, and urinary frequency. Fetal movement counting is important for monitoring
fetal well-being but is not a sign of preterm labor .
Q9. A client asks the nurse about taking over-the-counter medications during pregnancy. Which
response is most appropriate?
A) "It is safe to take any medication labeled 'natural'."
B) "Avoid all medications until the third trimester."
C) "Consult your provider before taking any medication, including OTC drugs."
D) "You can take ibuprofen for headaches."
Correct Answer: C) "Consult your provider before taking any medication, including OTC
drugs."
Rationale: Many OTC medications (including NSAIDs like ibuprofen) are contraindicated during
certain trimesters. The safest approach is to consult the provider before any medication use .
Q10. A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal record. The client's obstetrical history includes: G4,
T2, P0, A1, L3. Which of the following correctly interprets this?
A) The client has had 4 pregnancies, 2 term births, 0 preterm births, 1 abortion, and 3 living
children
B) The client has had 4 pregnancies, 2 term births, 1 preterm birth, 0 abortions, and 3 living
children
