NRS 3026 EXAM 2 2026.2027
OAKLAND UNIVERSITY 100%
VERIFIED QUESTION AND
ANSWERS (GUARANTEED PASS)
The difference between pathologic jaundice and physiologic jaundice is that pathologic jaundice:
a. usually results in kernicterus.
b. appears during the first 24 hours of life.
c. begins on the head and progresses down the body.
d. results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
b
While caring for a post-term infant, the nurse recognizes that the elevated hematocrit level most
likely results from:
a. hypoxia in utero.
b. underproduction of red blood cells.
c. increased breakdown of red blood cells.
d. the normal expected shift from fetal hemoglobin to normal hemoglobin.
a
Shortly after a cesarean birth, a newborn begins to exhibit difficulty breathing. Nasal flaring and slight
retractions are noted. The newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for closer
observation, with a diagnosis of transient tachypnea (TTN). The parents are notified and become
anxious because they have no idea what this means in terms of medical condition. The best action
that the nurse can take at this time is to:
a. refer them to the neonatologist for more information.
b. tell them not to worry because their infant will be monitored closely by trained staff.
c. explain to them that this often occurs following a birth but it will most likely resolve in the next 24
to 48 hours.
d. tell them that they will be able to come and see their baby, which will help make them feel better.
c
,While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes
priority for the newborn at birth?
a. Risk for infection related to release of meconium
b. Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
c. Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
d. Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
c
Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
a. Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
b. Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
c. Infant bilirubin level
d. Maternal blood type
c
Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
a. Hb 18 g/dL, Hct 50%
b. Hb 25/dL, Hct 55%
c. Hb 20/dL, Hct 65%
d. Hb 30 g/dL, Hct 70%
d
The nurse notes that the infant has been feeding poorly over the last 24 hours. She should
immediately assess for other signs of:
a. hyperglycemia.
b. neonatal infection.
c. hemolytic anemia.
d. increased bilirubin levels.
b
The priority assessment for the Rh-positive infant whose mother's indirect Coombs test was positive
at 36 weeks is:
a. skin color.
b. temperature.
c. respiratory rate.
d. blood glucose level.
,a
The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if:
a. both mother and infant are O-positive.
b. mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
c. mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
d. mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
d
Infection can be transmitted to the neonata from mother during the pregnancy or birth or from the
mother, family members, visitors, or agency staff after birth. Which viral infections are most likely to
be transmitted during the birth process? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hepatitis B
b. Rubella
c. Herpes
d. Varicella Zoster
e. Cytomegalovirus
a, c, e
The drug-exposed infant often presents with irritability, frantic crying, and is difficult to console.
Which nursing measures can be used to prevent this behavior in this high-risk infant? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Keep the room well lit.
b. Swaddle the infant.
c. Rock slowly and gently.
d. Coo softly and gently.
e. Avoid pacifier use.
b, c, d
The infant of a diabetic mother is hypoglycemic. Which type of feeding should be instituted first?
a. Glucose water
b. D5W intravenously
c. Formula via nasogastric tube
d. Small amount of glucose water followed by formula or breast milk
d
, The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding
episode in late pregnancy is to:
a. monitor uterine contractions.
b. assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
c. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
d. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
b
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and
epigastrict pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate:
a. gastrointestinal upset.
b. effects of magnesium sulfate.
c. anxiety caused by hospitalization.
d. worsening disease and impending convulsion.
d
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the:
a. fetus is Rh-negative
b. fetus is Rh-positive.
c. father is Rh-positive.
d. father and fetus are both Rh-negative.
b
In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
a. Complete abortion at 8 weeks
b. Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks
c. Threatened abortion at 6 weeks
d. Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks
d
Which data found on a patient's health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
a. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
b. Recurrent pelvic infections
c. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
d. Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days' duration
b
OAKLAND UNIVERSITY 100%
VERIFIED QUESTION AND
ANSWERS (GUARANTEED PASS)
The difference between pathologic jaundice and physiologic jaundice is that pathologic jaundice:
a. usually results in kernicterus.
b. appears during the first 24 hours of life.
c. begins on the head and progresses down the body.
d. results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
b
While caring for a post-term infant, the nurse recognizes that the elevated hematocrit level most
likely results from:
a. hypoxia in utero.
b. underproduction of red blood cells.
c. increased breakdown of red blood cells.
d. the normal expected shift from fetal hemoglobin to normal hemoglobin.
a
Shortly after a cesarean birth, a newborn begins to exhibit difficulty breathing. Nasal flaring and slight
retractions are noted. The newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for closer
observation, with a diagnosis of transient tachypnea (TTN). The parents are notified and become
anxious because they have no idea what this means in terms of medical condition. The best action
that the nurse can take at this time is to:
a. refer them to the neonatologist for more information.
b. tell them not to worry because their infant will be monitored closely by trained staff.
c. explain to them that this often occurs following a birth but it will most likely resolve in the next 24
to 48 hours.
d. tell them that they will be able to come and see their baby, which will help make them feel better.
c
,While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes
priority for the newborn at birth?
a. Risk for infection related to release of meconium
b. Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
c. Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
d. Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
c
Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
a. Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
b. Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
c. Infant bilirubin level
d. Maternal blood type
c
Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
a. Hb 18 g/dL, Hct 50%
b. Hb 25/dL, Hct 55%
c. Hb 20/dL, Hct 65%
d. Hb 30 g/dL, Hct 70%
d
The nurse notes that the infant has been feeding poorly over the last 24 hours. She should
immediately assess for other signs of:
a. hyperglycemia.
b. neonatal infection.
c. hemolytic anemia.
d. increased bilirubin levels.
b
The priority assessment for the Rh-positive infant whose mother's indirect Coombs test was positive
at 36 weeks is:
a. skin color.
b. temperature.
c. respiratory rate.
d. blood glucose level.
,a
The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if:
a. both mother and infant are O-positive.
b. mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
c. mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
d. mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
d
Infection can be transmitted to the neonata from mother during the pregnancy or birth or from the
mother, family members, visitors, or agency staff after birth. Which viral infections are most likely to
be transmitted during the birth process? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hepatitis B
b. Rubella
c. Herpes
d. Varicella Zoster
e. Cytomegalovirus
a, c, e
The drug-exposed infant often presents with irritability, frantic crying, and is difficult to console.
Which nursing measures can be used to prevent this behavior in this high-risk infant? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Keep the room well lit.
b. Swaddle the infant.
c. Rock slowly and gently.
d. Coo softly and gently.
e. Avoid pacifier use.
b, c, d
The infant of a diabetic mother is hypoglycemic. Which type of feeding should be instituted first?
a. Glucose water
b. D5W intravenously
c. Formula via nasogastric tube
d. Small amount of glucose water followed by formula or breast milk
d
, The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding
episode in late pregnancy is to:
a. monitor uterine contractions.
b. assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
c. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
d. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
b
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and
epigastrict pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate:
a. gastrointestinal upset.
b. effects of magnesium sulfate.
c. anxiety caused by hospitalization.
d. worsening disease and impending convulsion.
d
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the:
a. fetus is Rh-negative
b. fetus is Rh-positive.
c. father is Rh-positive.
d. father and fetus are both Rh-negative.
b
In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
a. Complete abortion at 8 weeks
b. Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks
c. Threatened abortion at 6 weeks
d. Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks
d
Which data found on a patient's health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
a. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
b. Recurrent pelvic infections
c. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
d. Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days' duration
b
