NR667 Week 7 Actual Exam Style V1 | NR
667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD presents with increased shortness of breath and
sputum production. Which of the following findings would most likely lead to a diagnosis of
acute exacerbation of COPD?
A. An increase in baseline cough and dyspnea
B. A normal chest X-ray
C. Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air
D. A decrease in heart rate
Answer: A
Rationale: An acute exacerbation of COPD is primarily defined by a worsening of
respiratory symptoms that is beyond normal day-to-day variations. Key indicators include
increased cough frequency, severity, and changes in sputum volume or purulence. This
clinical diagnosis guides immediate changes in medication management to prevent further
respiratory failure.
2. Which Medicare part covers outpatient provider visits and durable medical equipment?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part D
,C. Medicare Part C
D. Medicare Part B
Answer: D
Rationale: Medicare Part B is designed to cover medically necessary services such as
doctors’ services and outpatient care. It also includes durable medical equipment like
wheelchairs and walkers that are used in the home. In contrast, Part A covers inpatient
hospital stays and Part D covers prescription drugs.
3. When managing a patient with Type 2 Diabetes, at what point should an ACE inhibitor be
initiated even if the blood pressure is normal?
A. When there is presence of albuminuria
B. When the patient reports polyuria
C. When the A1C is greater than 9%
D. When the patient is over the age of 65
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors provide renal protection by reducing intraglomerular pressure
and slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy. The presence of albuminuria is a
primary indicator for starting this therapy regardless of systemic blood pressure levels.
Guidelines suggest screening for albuminuria annually to detect early signs of kidney
damage in diabetic patients.
, 4. A patient presents with a T-score of -2.6 on a DEXA scan. How should this result be
classified according to the World Health Organization?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopenia
C. Normal
D. Severe Osteoporosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Osteoporosis is defined as a T-score of -2.5 or lower on a DEXA scan. Scores
between -1.0 and -2.5 are classified as osteopenia, indicating low bone mass. This
classification helps clinicians determine the risk of fracture and the necessity of initiating
pharmacological treatment such as bisphosphonates.
5. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a ‘Incident To’ billing service in a
primary care setting?
A. The physician does not need to be in the office suite.
B. The NP is seeing a new patient for a new problem.
C. The NP bills under their own NPI number for 100% reimbursement.
D. The physician must have established the initial plan of care.
Answer: D
667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD presents with increased shortness of breath and
sputum production. Which of the following findings would most likely lead to a diagnosis of
acute exacerbation of COPD?
A. An increase in baseline cough and dyspnea
B. A normal chest X-ray
C. Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air
D. A decrease in heart rate
Answer: A
Rationale: An acute exacerbation of COPD is primarily defined by a worsening of
respiratory symptoms that is beyond normal day-to-day variations. Key indicators include
increased cough frequency, severity, and changes in sputum volume or purulence. This
clinical diagnosis guides immediate changes in medication management to prevent further
respiratory failure.
2. Which Medicare part covers outpatient provider visits and durable medical equipment?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part D
,C. Medicare Part C
D. Medicare Part B
Answer: D
Rationale: Medicare Part B is designed to cover medically necessary services such as
doctors’ services and outpatient care. It also includes durable medical equipment like
wheelchairs and walkers that are used in the home. In contrast, Part A covers inpatient
hospital stays and Part D covers prescription drugs.
3. When managing a patient with Type 2 Diabetes, at what point should an ACE inhibitor be
initiated even if the blood pressure is normal?
A. When there is presence of albuminuria
B. When the patient reports polyuria
C. When the A1C is greater than 9%
D. When the patient is over the age of 65
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors provide renal protection by reducing intraglomerular pressure
and slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy. The presence of albuminuria is a
primary indicator for starting this therapy regardless of systemic blood pressure levels.
Guidelines suggest screening for albuminuria annually to detect early signs of kidney
damage in diabetic patients.
, 4. A patient presents with a T-score of -2.6 on a DEXA scan. How should this result be
classified according to the World Health Organization?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopenia
C. Normal
D. Severe Osteoporosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Osteoporosis is defined as a T-score of -2.5 or lower on a DEXA scan. Scores
between -1.0 and -2.5 are classified as osteopenia, indicating low bone mass. This
classification helps clinicians determine the risk of fracture and the necessity of initiating
pharmacological treatment such as bisphosphonates.
5. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a ‘Incident To’ billing service in a
primary care setting?
A. The physician does not need to be in the office suite.
B. The NP is seeing a new patient for a new problem.
C. The NP bills under their own NPI number for 100% reimbursement.
D. The physician must have established the initial plan of care.
Answer: D
