ATI RN Predictor Exit Exam 2026 (NGN) | Practice
Questions, Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Comprehensive NCLEX Readiness Review | Latest Edition
Question 1 A nurse assesses a client with heart failure who reports increasing shortness of
breath when lying flat. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Weight gain of 1 lb (0.45 kg) overnight B. Bilateral ankle edema C. Oxygen saturation
of 86% on room air D. Fatigue after walking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia requiring
immediate intervention. Mild weight gain, edema, and fatigue are expected findings but are
less urgent.
Question 2 A nurse is administering insulin lispro. When should the medication be given?
A. 1 hour before meals B. Immediately before or within 15 minutes of eating C. At
bedtime D. 2 hours after meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin lispro is rapid-acting and should be administered just before meals to
reduce the risk of hypoglycemia.
Question 3 Which laboratory value should the nurse report immediately for a client
receiving chemotherapy?
A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL B. Platelets 180,000/mm³ C. WBC 1,500/mm³ D. Sodium 138
mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,500/mm³ indicates severe neutropenia and places the client
at high risk for infection.
Question 4 A client with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which prescription is
appropriate?
A. 100% oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. 6 L/min via nasal cannula C. 1–2 L/min via
nasal cannula D. Oxygen only if respiratory rate exceeds 30/min
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Low-flow oxygen is recommended for COPD clients to avoid suppressing the
respiratory drive while maintaining adequate oxygenation.
Question 5 Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with postoperative pain rated 7/10 B. Client with blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. Client with chest pain and diaphoresis D. Client requesting discharge
instructions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain with diaphoresis suggests acute myocardial infarction and requires
immediate assessment.
Question 6 Which electrolyte imbalance is expected in a client receiving furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, frequently causing hypokalemia.
Question 7 A nurse is caring for a client with bacterial meningitis. Which action has the
highest priority?
A. Encourage visitors B. Institute droplet precautions C. Offer a high-protein diet D.
Limit fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions reduce transmission of meningitis organisms to others.
Question 8 A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action is appropriate?
A. Administer the scheduled dose B. Hold the medication and notify the provider C.
Increase dietary vitamin K immediately D. Encourage vigorous exercise
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 5.2 indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
Question 9 Which assessment finding indicates effective pain management?
A. Blood pressure remains elevated. B. Client reports pain decreased from 8/10 to
3/10. C. Client sleeps throughout the day. D. Respiratory rate is 8/min.
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The client’s self-report is the most reliable indicator of pain relief.
Question 10 Which finding is expected in a client with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Jaundice B. Glossitis and fatigue C. Hypertension D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glossitis, fatigue, and pallor are common manifestations of iron-deficiency
anemia.
Question 11 Which food should a nurse recommend to increase potassium intake?
A. White rice B. Banana C. Crackers D. Cheese
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium.
Question 12 Which client is at greatest risk for developing pressure injuries?
A. Ambulatory client B. Client on bed rest with limited mobility C. Client with seasonal
allergies D. Client with a wrist fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immobility significantly increases pressure injury risk.
Question 13 A client develops hives and wheezing during a blood transfusion. What is the
nurse’s first action?
A. Slow the transfusion. B. Stop the transfusion. C. Administer acetaminophen. D.
Document findings.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stop the transfusion immediately to prevent progression of a transfusion
reaction.
Question 14 Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated) B. Tdap C. MMR D. Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR is a live vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy.
Question 15 A nurse identifies which finding as a sign of hypoglycemia?
Questions, Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Comprehensive NCLEX Readiness Review | Latest Edition
Question 1 A nurse assesses a client with heart failure who reports increasing shortness of
breath when lying flat. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Weight gain of 1 lb (0.45 kg) overnight B. Bilateral ankle edema C. Oxygen saturation
of 86% on room air D. Fatigue after walking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia requiring
immediate intervention. Mild weight gain, edema, and fatigue are expected findings but are
less urgent.
Question 2 A nurse is administering insulin lispro. When should the medication be given?
A. 1 hour before meals B. Immediately before or within 15 minutes of eating C. At
bedtime D. 2 hours after meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin lispro is rapid-acting and should be administered just before meals to
reduce the risk of hypoglycemia.
Question 3 Which laboratory value should the nurse report immediately for a client
receiving chemotherapy?
A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL B. Platelets 180,000/mm³ C. WBC 1,500/mm³ D. Sodium 138
mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,500/mm³ indicates severe neutropenia and places the client
at high risk for infection.
Question 4 A client with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which prescription is
appropriate?
A. 100% oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. 6 L/min via nasal cannula C. 1–2 L/min via
nasal cannula D. Oxygen only if respiratory rate exceeds 30/min
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Low-flow oxygen is recommended for COPD clients to avoid suppressing the
respiratory drive while maintaining adequate oxygenation.
Question 5 Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with postoperative pain rated 7/10 B. Client with blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. Client with chest pain and diaphoresis D. Client requesting discharge
instructions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain with diaphoresis suggests acute myocardial infarction and requires
immediate assessment.
Question 6 Which electrolyte imbalance is expected in a client receiving furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, frequently causing hypokalemia.
Question 7 A nurse is caring for a client with bacterial meningitis. Which action has the
highest priority?
A. Encourage visitors B. Institute droplet precautions C. Offer a high-protein diet D.
Limit fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions reduce transmission of meningitis organisms to others.
Question 8 A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action is appropriate?
A. Administer the scheduled dose B. Hold the medication and notify the provider C.
Increase dietary vitamin K immediately D. Encourage vigorous exercise
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 5.2 indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
Question 9 Which assessment finding indicates effective pain management?
A. Blood pressure remains elevated. B. Client reports pain decreased from 8/10 to
3/10. C. Client sleeps throughout the day. D. Respiratory rate is 8/min.
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The client’s self-report is the most reliable indicator of pain relief.
Question 10 Which finding is expected in a client with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Jaundice B. Glossitis and fatigue C. Hypertension D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glossitis, fatigue, and pallor are common manifestations of iron-deficiency
anemia.
Question 11 Which food should a nurse recommend to increase potassium intake?
A. White rice B. Banana C. Crackers D. Cheese
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium.
Question 12 Which client is at greatest risk for developing pressure injuries?
A. Ambulatory client B. Client on bed rest with limited mobility C. Client with seasonal
allergies D. Client with a wrist fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immobility significantly increases pressure injury risk.
Question 13 A client develops hives and wheezing during a blood transfusion. What is the
nurse’s first action?
A. Slow the transfusion. B. Stop the transfusion. C. Administer acetaminophen. D.
Document findings.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stop the transfusion immediately to prevent progression of a transfusion
reaction.
Question 14 Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated) B. Tdap C. MMR D. Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR is a live vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy.
Question 15 A nurse identifies which finding as a sign of hypoglycemia?
