HESI Comprehensive Exit Exam Prep
Document 2026/2027 | NCLEX Readiness,
Clinical Judgment & Comprehensive
Nursing Review Exam QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ACCURATE SOLUTION (DETAILED
& ELABORATED) |GET IT 100%
ACCURATE!! 2026 TEST
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who
suddenly develops severe dyspnea and frothy pink sputum.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position and administer
oxygen
C. Obtain a blood glucose level
D. Encourage coughing exercises
Answer: B
Rationale: Pink frothy sputum and severe dyspnea indicate
acute pulmonary edema. Positioning the client upright and
administering oxygen improves ventilation while additional
emergency interventions are initiated.
2. A client receiving IV potassium reports burning at the
insertion site. What should the nurse do first?
,A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
C. Apply a warm compress and continue infusion
D. Dilute with sterile water
Answer: B
Rationale: Burning may indicate infiltration or phlebitis. The
infusion should be stopped immediately and the IV site
assessed before restarting elsewhere.
3. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia increases the risk for life-
threatening dysrhythmias and requires prompt treatment.
4. Which finding is most concerning after a thyroidectomy?
A. Mild hoarseness
B. Difficulty swallowing
C. Stridor
D. Neck discomfort
Answer: C
,Rationale: Stridor indicates airway obstruction from edema or
hemorrhage and is a medical emergency.
5. A client with diabetes becomes diaphoretic and confused.
What is the nurse's priority?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Encourage exercise
D. Restrict fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms suggest hypoglycemia.
Confirming blood glucose allows immediate appropriate
treatment.
6. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Stable angina relieved by nitroglycerin
B. COPD client requesting pain medication
C. Postoperative client with absent bowel sounds
D. Chest pain unrelieved after three nitroglycerin tablets
Answer: D
Rationale: Persistent chest pain after nitroglycerin may
indicate myocardial infarction requiring immediate
evaluation.
, 7. Which assessment finding suggests increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Bradycardia and hypertension
B. Tachycardia and hypotension
C. Fever and tachypnea
D. Hypertension and tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing's triad includes bradycardia, hypertension
with widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations.
8. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with peaked T
waves?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Peaked T waves are an early ECG sign of
hyperkalemia.
9. Which client is at greatest risk for aspiration?
A. Pneumonia with productive cough
B. Stroke with dysphagia
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
Document 2026/2027 | NCLEX Readiness,
Clinical Judgment & Comprehensive
Nursing Review Exam QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ACCURATE SOLUTION (DETAILED
& ELABORATED) |GET IT 100%
ACCURATE!! 2026 TEST
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who
suddenly develops severe dyspnea and frothy pink sputum.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position and administer
oxygen
C. Obtain a blood glucose level
D. Encourage coughing exercises
Answer: B
Rationale: Pink frothy sputum and severe dyspnea indicate
acute pulmonary edema. Positioning the client upright and
administering oxygen improves ventilation while additional
emergency interventions are initiated.
2. A client receiving IV potassium reports burning at the
insertion site. What should the nurse do first?
,A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and assess the IV site
C. Apply a warm compress and continue infusion
D. Dilute with sterile water
Answer: B
Rationale: Burning may indicate infiltration or phlebitis. The
infusion should be stopped immediately and the IV site
assessed before restarting elsewhere.
3. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia increases the risk for life-
threatening dysrhythmias and requires prompt treatment.
4. Which finding is most concerning after a thyroidectomy?
A. Mild hoarseness
B. Difficulty swallowing
C. Stridor
D. Neck discomfort
Answer: C
,Rationale: Stridor indicates airway obstruction from edema or
hemorrhage and is a medical emergency.
5. A client with diabetes becomes diaphoretic and confused.
What is the nurse's priority?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Encourage exercise
D. Restrict fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms suggest hypoglycemia.
Confirming blood glucose allows immediate appropriate
treatment.
6. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Stable angina relieved by nitroglycerin
B. COPD client requesting pain medication
C. Postoperative client with absent bowel sounds
D. Chest pain unrelieved after three nitroglycerin tablets
Answer: D
Rationale: Persistent chest pain after nitroglycerin may
indicate myocardial infarction requiring immediate
evaluation.
, 7. Which assessment finding suggests increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Bradycardia and hypertension
B. Tachycardia and hypotension
C. Fever and tachypnea
D. Hypertension and tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing's triad includes bradycardia, hypertension
with widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations.
8. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with peaked T
waves?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Peaked T waves are an early ECG sign of
hyperkalemia.
9. Which client is at greatest risk for aspiration?
A. Pneumonia with productive cough
B. Stroke with dysphagia
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
