RASMUSSEN NUR2063 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 2026 STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | DISEASE PROCESSES & PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK

RASMUSSEN NUR2063 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
2026 STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | DISEASE
PROCESSES & PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST
BANK
RASMUSSEN NUR2063 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 2026 STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE
EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | DISEASE PROCESSES & PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
TEST BANK



DOCUMENT OVERVIEW:

• This comprehensive study guide contains 200 evidence-based multiple-choice
questions designed to reinforce understanding of core pathophysiology concepts
across all major body systems and disease processes covered in NUR2063

• Use this material by reviewing questions under timed conditions, analyzing
EXPERT RATIONALE to deepen concept mastery, and identifying weak topic areas
for targeted review before the final examination



QUESTION 1

A 45-year-old patient presents with acute myocardial infarction. Which of the
following cellular processes begins immediately after the onset of ischemia
and contributes most to irreversible cell injury?

A) Increased glycogen storage in mitochondria

B) Activation of anaerobic metabolism and depletion of ATP stores

C) Hypertrophy of the endoplasmic reticulum

D) Enhanced protein synthesis by ribosomes

E) Increased collagen deposition in the extracellular matrix

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Activation of anaerobic metabolism and depletion of
ATP stores

,EXPERT RATIONALE: When ischemia occurs, aerobic metabolism ceases, forcing
cells to rely on anaerobic pathways that produce minimal ATP. This rapid depletion
of ATP triggers a cascade of events including failure of Na+/K+ ATPase pumps,
allowing calcium influx and leading to irreversible cell injury. The other options
represent adaptive responses or chronic changes that do not directly explain acute
ischemic cell injury.



QUESTION 2

A 62-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease experiences
acute hypoxia. Which pathophysiologic mechanism is primarily responsible
for the development of secondary polycythemia in this patient?

A) Decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys

B) Increased release of erythropoietin from the kidneys in response to chronic
hypoxia

C) Destruction of red blood cells by splenic macrophages

D) Malabsorption of vitamin B12 and folate

E) Chronic bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Increased release of erythropoietin from the kidneys in
response to chronic hypoxia

EXPERT RATIONALE: The kidneys are the primary source of erythropoietin (EPO), a
hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Chronic
hypoxia triggers increased EPO secretion as a compensatory mechanism to
enhance oxygen-carrying capacity. This leads to secondary polycythemia. The other
options either reduce RBC production or cause anemia rather than polycythemia.



QUESTION 3

,A 34-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus develops a malar
rash and arthralgia. Which immune mechanism is most directly responsible
for the tissue damage seen in this autoimmune disease?

A) Deficiency of thymic selection of T lymphocytes

B) Formation and deposition of immune complexes in tissues

C) Reduced production of immunoglobulin M by B cells

D) Excessive activation of natural killer cells

E) Decreased complement system activation

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Formation and deposition of immune complexes in
tissues

EXPERT RATIONALE: In systemic lupus erythematosus, autoantibodies bind to self-
antigens forming circulating immune complexes that deposit in various tissues
including the skin, joints, and kidneys. These complexes activate complement and
recruit inflammatory cells, causing Type III hypersensitivity reactions. This explains
the characteristic rash and arthralgia. The other options do not accurately describe
the primary pathophysiology of SLE.



QUESTION 4

A 56-year-old patient develops acute hyperkalemia following acute renal
failure. Which cardiac manifestation would the nurse expect to observe first
on the electrocardiogram?

A) Prolonged QT interval

B) Peaked T waves

C) Widened QRS complex

D) First-degree atrioventricular block

E) Atrial fibrillation

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Peaked T waves

, EXPERT RATIONALE: Hyperkalemia affects cardiac electrolyte balance and
repolarization. The earliest ECG change is peaked (tented) T waves, which occur due
to acceleration of repolarization. As potassium levels rise further, the QRS complex
widens, PR interval lengthens, and eventually asystole can occur. Peaked T waves
appear before the other cardiac changes listed.



QUESTION 5

A 28-year-old male with hemophilia A presents with spontaneous
hemarthrosis. Which clotting factor deficiency is responsible for this bleeding
tendency?

A) Factor II (prothrombin)

B) Factor VIII

C) Factor X

D) Factor XIII (fibrin-stabilizing factor)

E) Platelet factor 3

CORRECT ANSWER: B) Factor VIII

EXPERT RATIONALE: Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of
Factor VIII, a key component of the intrinsic coagulation pathway. This leads to
impaired thrombin generation and inadequate fibrin formation, resulting in
spontaneous bleeding, particularly into joints (hemarthrosis), muscles, and soft
tissues. Factors II and X are part of the prothrombrin complex, and Factor XIII is
involved in fibrin cross-linking.



QUESTION 6

A 71-year-old woman with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation is at increased
risk for thromboembolism. Which pathophysiologic mechanism explains this
increased risk?

A) Increased production of platelets in the bone marrow