Evolve HESI-RN Pathophysiology Practice
Tests 2026 Latest Update | Complete Exam
Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales- Graded A+
Question 1
After talking with the healthcare provider, a male client continues to have questions
about the results of a prostatic surface antigen (PSA) screening test and asks the nurse
how the PSA levels become elevated. The nurse should explain which pathophysiological
mechanism?
A. As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA in the circulating blood.
B. The PSA levels normally rise and fall, so multiple testings over time are necessary.
C. Low PSA levels indicate that the prostate gland is not functioning properly.
D. The PSA blood test is used to determine dosage for Viagra prescriptions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: PSA is a glycoprotein found in prostatic epithelial cells, and elevations
are used as specific tumor markers. Elevations in PSA are related to gland volume, i.e.,
benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, and cancer of the prostate, indicating (tumor)
cell load. PSA levels are also used to monitor response to therapy. (B, C, and D) provide
incorrect information.
Question 2
A 26-year-old male client with Hodgkin's disease is scheduled to undergo radiation
therapy. The client expresses concern about the effect of radiation on his ability to have
children. What information should the nurse provide?
A. The radiation therapy causes the inability to have an erection.
B. Fertility returns when the therapy is completed.
C. Permanent sterility occurs in male clients who receive radiation.
D. Sperm production ceases during radiation but resumes in 6 months.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Low sperm count and loss of motility are seen in males with Hodgkin's
disease before any therapy. Radiotherapy often results in permanent aspermia, or
sterility. (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
pg. 1
,Question 3
The nurse hears short, high-pitched sounds just before the end of inspiration in the right
and left lower lobes when auscultating a client's lungs. How should this finding be
recorded?
A. Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs.
B. Crackles in the right and left lower lobes.
C. Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs.
D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fine crackles are short, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of
inspiration that are the result of rapid equalization of pressure when collapsed alveoli or
terminal bronchioles suddenly snap open. Wheezing (A) is a continuous high-pitched
squeaking or musical sound caused by rapid vibration of bronchial walls that are first
evident on expiration and may be audible. Although (C) describes an adventitious lung
sound, this documentation is vague. (D) is a creaking or grating sound from roughened,
inflamed surfaces of the pleura rubbing together heard during inspiration, expiration,
and with no change during coughing.
Question 4
A client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a tension pneumothorax. Which
assessment should the nurse expect to identify?
A. An absence of lung sounds on the affected side.
B. An inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds.
C. A deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the pneumothorax.
D. A shift of the trachea toward the side of the pneumothorax.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tension pneumothorax is caused by rapid accumulation of air in the
pleural space, causing severely high intrapleural pressure. This results in collapse of the
lung, and the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side, which is subsequently
compressed (C). (A, B, and D) are not demonstrated with a tension pneumothorax.
Question 5
A client who is receiving a whole blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and a
headache 30 minutes after the transfusion is started. The nurse should recognize these
symptoms as characteristic of what reaction?
A. A mild allergic reaction.
pg. 2
, B. A febrile transfusion reaction.
C. An anaphylactic transfusion reaction.
D. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Symptoms of a febrile reaction (B) include sudden chills, fever,
headache, flushing and muscle pain. An allergic reaction (A) is the response of
histamine release which is characterized by flushing, itching, and urticaria. An
anaphylactic reaction (C) exhibits an exaggerated allergic response that progresses to
shock and possible cardiac arrest. An acute hemolytic reaction (D) presents with fever
and chills, but is hallmarked by the onset of low back pain, tachycardia, tachypnea,
vascular collapse, hemoglobinuria, dark urine, acute renal failure, shock, cardiac arrest,
and even death.
Question 6
The nurse is analyzing the waveforms of a client's electrocardiogram. What finding
indicates a disturbance in electrical conduction in the ventricles?
A. T wave of 0.16 second.
B. PR interval of 0.18 second.
C. QT interval of 0.40 second.
D. QRS interval of 0.14 second.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The normal duration of the QRS is 0.04 to 0.12 second, so a prolonged
QRS (D) indicates an electrical anomaly in the ventricles. The T wave is normally 0.16
seconds (A). The PR interval range is 0.12 to 0.20 second (B). The QT interval should be
0.31 to 0.38 second (C).
Question 7
Several hours after surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), the client
develops left flank pain. The nurse determines the client's urinary output is 20 ml/hr for
the past 2 hours. The nurse should conclude that these findings support which
complication?
A. Infection.
B. Hypovolemia.
C. Intestinal ischemia.
D. Renal artery embolization.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Postoperative complications of surgical repair of AAA are related to the
pg. 3
Tests 2026 Latest Update | Complete Exam
Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales- Graded A+
Question 1
After talking with the healthcare provider, a male client continues to have questions
about the results of a prostatic surface antigen (PSA) screening test and asks the nurse
how the PSA levels become elevated. The nurse should explain which pathophysiological
mechanism?
A. As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA in the circulating blood.
B. The PSA levels normally rise and fall, so multiple testings over time are necessary.
C. Low PSA levels indicate that the prostate gland is not functioning properly.
D. The PSA blood test is used to determine dosage for Viagra prescriptions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: PSA is a glycoprotein found in prostatic epithelial cells, and elevations
are used as specific tumor markers. Elevations in PSA are related to gland volume, i.e.,
benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, and cancer of the prostate, indicating (tumor)
cell load. PSA levels are also used to monitor response to therapy. (B, C, and D) provide
incorrect information.
Question 2
A 26-year-old male client with Hodgkin's disease is scheduled to undergo radiation
therapy. The client expresses concern about the effect of radiation on his ability to have
children. What information should the nurse provide?
A. The radiation therapy causes the inability to have an erection.
B. Fertility returns when the therapy is completed.
C. Permanent sterility occurs in male clients who receive radiation.
D. Sperm production ceases during radiation but resumes in 6 months.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Low sperm count and loss of motility are seen in males with Hodgkin's
disease before any therapy. Radiotherapy often results in permanent aspermia, or
sterility. (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
pg. 1
,Question 3
The nurse hears short, high-pitched sounds just before the end of inspiration in the right
and left lower lobes when auscultating a client's lungs. How should this finding be
recorded?
A. Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs.
B. Crackles in the right and left lower lobes.
C. Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs.
D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fine crackles are short, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of
inspiration that are the result of rapid equalization of pressure when collapsed alveoli or
terminal bronchioles suddenly snap open. Wheezing (A) is a continuous high-pitched
squeaking or musical sound caused by rapid vibration of bronchial walls that are first
evident on expiration and may be audible. Although (C) describes an adventitious lung
sound, this documentation is vague. (D) is a creaking or grating sound from roughened,
inflamed surfaces of the pleura rubbing together heard during inspiration, expiration,
and with no change during coughing.
Question 4
A client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a tension pneumothorax. Which
assessment should the nurse expect to identify?
A. An absence of lung sounds on the affected side.
B. An inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds.
C. A deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the pneumothorax.
D. A shift of the trachea toward the side of the pneumothorax.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tension pneumothorax is caused by rapid accumulation of air in the
pleural space, causing severely high intrapleural pressure. This results in collapse of the
lung, and the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side, which is subsequently
compressed (C). (A, B, and D) are not demonstrated with a tension pneumothorax.
Question 5
A client who is receiving a whole blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and a
headache 30 minutes after the transfusion is started. The nurse should recognize these
symptoms as characteristic of what reaction?
A. A mild allergic reaction.
pg. 2
, B. A febrile transfusion reaction.
C. An anaphylactic transfusion reaction.
D. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Symptoms of a febrile reaction (B) include sudden chills, fever,
headache, flushing and muscle pain. An allergic reaction (A) is the response of
histamine release which is characterized by flushing, itching, and urticaria. An
anaphylactic reaction (C) exhibits an exaggerated allergic response that progresses to
shock and possible cardiac arrest. An acute hemolytic reaction (D) presents with fever
and chills, but is hallmarked by the onset of low back pain, tachycardia, tachypnea,
vascular collapse, hemoglobinuria, dark urine, acute renal failure, shock, cardiac arrest,
and even death.
Question 6
The nurse is analyzing the waveforms of a client's electrocardiogram. What finding
indicates a disturbance in electrical conduction in the ventricles?
A. T wave of 0.16 second.
B. PR interval of 0.18 second.
C. QT interval of 0.40 second.
D. QRS interval of 0.14 second.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The normal duration of the QRS is 0.04 to 0.12 second, so a prolonged
QRS (D) indicates an electrical anomaly in the ventricles. The T wave is normally 0.16
seconds (A). The PR interval range is 0.12 to 0.20 second (B). The QT interval should be
0.31 to 0.38 second (C).
Question 7
Several hours after surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), the client
develops left flank pain. The nurse determines the client's urinary output is 20 ml/hr for
the past 2 hours. The nurse should conclude that these findings support which
complication?
A. Infection.
B. Hypovolemia.
C. Intestinal ischemia.
D. Renal artery embolization.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Postoperative complications of surgical repair of AAA are related to the
pg. 3
