Comprehensive Kaplan PN Secure Predictor
and Nursing Fundamentals Practice Exam –
Updated 2026 (Graded A+)
Subject: Nursing Fundamentals and Clinical Management
Subtopic: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Prioritization and Delegation
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority
assessment?
A) The client reports a pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
B) The client has a urine output of 150 mL over the last 8 hours.
C) The client’s surgical dressing has a 4 cm area of serosanguineous drainage.
D) The client’s heart rate is 92 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: B - The client has a urine output of 150 mL over the last 8 hours.
Rationale: The nurse must apply the nursing process and prioritization frameworks such as
Maslow's Hierarchy or ABCs. A urine output of less than 30 mL per hour (totaling less than 240
mL in an 8-hour shift) is an indicator of potential renal perfusion issues or hypovolemia, which
is an urgent physiological need. Option A (pain) is important but not life-threatening. Option C
(serosanguineous drainage) is a common expected finding following surgery. Option D (heart
rate of 92) is within the expected range for a postoperative client.
Question 2: A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following
tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the AP?
A) Obtaining a capillary blood glucose reading on a client who has diabetes mellitus.
B) Performing an initial assessment on a client admitted with pneumonia.
C) Evaluating the effectiveness of an antiemetic medication for a client with nausea.
D) Educating a client on the proper use of an incentive spirometer.
Correct Answer: A - Obtaining a capillary blood glucose reading on a client who has
diabetes mellitus.
, Rationale: According to the scope of practice and the Five Rights of Delegation, APs can
perform routine, non-invasive tasks such as collecting specimens or obtaining routine vital signs.
Option B (initial assessment), Option C (evaluating medication effectiveness), and Option D
(patient education) are nursing responsibilities that require clinical judgment, assessment, and
professional nursing knowledge, which cannot be delegated.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for airborne precautions. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Wear a surgical mask when entering the client's room.
B) Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow.
C) Maintain a distance of at least 3 feet from the client during care.
D) Wear a gown and gloves when providing any direct care.
Correct Answer: B - Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow.
Rationale: Airborne precautions are required for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei,
such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. A negative-pressure room ensures that air from the
room is vented outside and does not circulate into the rest of the facility. Option A is incorrect
because a surgical mask is insufficient; an N95 respirator is required. Option C is incorrect
because airborne particles can travel further than 3 feet. Option D describes standard or contact
precautions, not airborne.
Subtopic: Pharmacology: Medication Administration and Safety
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client. The apical pulse
is 58/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
C) Administer half of the prescribed dose.
D) Re-check the apical pulse in 1 hour.
Correct Answer: B - Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. The standard safety protocol
for adult clients is to withhold the dose if the apical pulse is less than 60/min. Administering the
dose could exacerbate bradycardia. Options A, C, and D are unsafe actions based on established
nursing protocols for digoxin administration.
and Nursing Fundamentals Practice Exam –
Updated 2026 (Graded A+)
Subject: Nursing Fundamentals and Clinical Management
Subtopic: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Prioritization and Delegation
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority
assessment?
A) The client reports a pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
B) The client has a urine output of 150 mL over the last 8 hours.
C) The client’s surgical dressing has a 4 cm area of serosanguineous drainage.
D) The client’s heart rate is 92 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: B - The client has a urine output of 150 mL over the last 8 hours.
Rationale: The nurse must apply the nursing process and prioritization frameworks such as
Maslow's Hierarchy or ABCs. A urine output of less than 30 mL per hour (totaling less than 240
mL in an 8-hour shift) is an indicator of potential renal perfusion issues or hypovolemia, which
is an urgent physiological need. Option A (pain) is important but not life-threatening. Option C
(serosanguineous drainage) is a common expected finding following surgery. Option D (heart
rate of 92) is within the expected range for a postoperative client.
Question 2: A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following
tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the AP?
A) Obtaining a capillary blood glucose reading on a client who has diabetes mellitus.
B) Performing an initial assessment on a client admitted with pneumonia.
C) Evaluating the effectiveness of an antiemetic medication for a client with nausea.
D) Educating a client on the proper use of an incentive spirometer.
Correct Answer: A - Obtaining a capillary blood glucose reading on a client who has
diabetes mellitus.
, Rationale: According to the scope of practice and the Five Rights of Delegation, APs can
perform routine, non-invasive tasks such as collecting specimens or obtaining routine vital signs.
Option B (initial assessment), Option C (evaluating medication effectiveness), and Option D
(patient education) are nursing responsibilities that require clinical judgment, assessment, and
professional nursing knowledge, which cannot be delegated.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for airborne precautions. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Wear a surgical mask when entering the client's room.
B) Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow.
C) Maintain a distance of at least 3 feet from the client during care.
D) Wear a gown and gloves when providing any direct care.
Correct Answer: B - Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow.
Rationale: Airborne precautions are required for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei,
such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. A negative-pressure room ensures that air from the
room is vented outside and does not circulate into the rest of the facility. Option A is incorrect
because a surgical mask is insufficient; an N95 respirator is required. Option C is incorrect
because airborne particles can travel further than 3 feet. Option D describes standard or contact
precautions, not airborne.
Subtopic: Pharmacology: Medication Administration and Safety
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client. The apical pulse
is 58/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
C) Administer half of the prescribed dose.
D) Re-check the apical pulse in 1 hour.
Correct Answer: B - Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. The standard safety protocol
for adult clients is to withhold the dose if the apical pulse is less than 60/min. Administering the
dose could exacerbate bradycardia. Options A, C, and D are unsafe actions based on established
nursing protocols for digoxin administration.
