Pass exams with confidence using this complete nursing study guide
and practice pack. Achieve exam success with these NCLEX-style
practice questions for student success.
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## 🏆 Pediatric Nursing Success Guide – Complete Prep Pack |
2025/2026 NCLEX-Style Study Bundle
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1. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who is admitted with dehydration. Which assessment finding is
the priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
A. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute.
B. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
C. Blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.
D. Urine output of 1 mL/kg/hr.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: A blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg is concerning, but in a 2-year-old, the normal
systolic blood pressure is around 90-100 mmHg. However, the most significant sign of shock in children
is hypotension, which is a late and ominous sign. While tachycardia (A) and tachypnea (B) are expected
compensatory mechanisms in dehydration, hypotension indicates decompensation. A urine output of 1
mL/kg/hr is adequate. This nursing exam prep question emphasizes the importance of recognizing early
signs of shock in pediatric patients.
2. The mother of a 6-month-old infant asks the nurse when she should start feeding her baby solid
foods. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "You can start solids at 4 months."
B. "Start solids at 6 months, beginning with single-grain cereals."
C. "Wait until your baby is 1 year old."
,D. "Start with meats and vegetables at 8 months."
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends introducing solid foods around 6
months of age, starting with iron-fortified single-grain cereals. Starting solids too early (before 4
months) can increase the risk of allergies and obesity. Waiting too long (after 6-8 months) may cause
nutritional deficiencies and feeding difficulties. This pediatric nursing study guide provides evidence-
based developmental milestones for student success in well-child care.
3. A nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child with suspected acute otitis media. Which assessment finding is
most indicative of this condition?
A. Clear drainage from the ear.
B. The child pulls on the affected ear.
C. The child reports a headache.
D. Pain that is worse in the morning.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: Ear pulling, tugging, or rubbing is a classic sign of ear pain in young children who
cannot verbalize their discomfort. This is a common behavioral indicator of acute otitis media. Clear
drainage may indicate a perforated eardrum or other issues. Headaches can occur but are not specific.
Pain is typically worse at night or when lying down. This nursing practice question reinforces the
importance of behavioral cues in pediatric assessments.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 2-month-old infant. Which vaccine is typically
administered at this age?
A. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella).
B. Varicella (chickenpox).
C. DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis).
D. Hepatitis A.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The DTaP vaccine is routinely given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age. The MMR and
varicella vaccines are given at 12-15 months. Hepatitis A is given at 12-23 months. This question
highlights the importance of adhering to the recommended immunization schedule, a core responsibility
in pediatric nursing and a frequent topic in nursing exam prep.
,5. A nurse is caring for a child with asthma who is prescribed albuterol via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)
with a spacer. The nurse should instruct the child to:
A. Inhale rapidly and deeply.
B. Hold the breath for 5-10 seconds after inhalation.
C. Exhale forcefully into the spacer.
D. Take a deep breath before pressing the canister.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: For effective medication delivery, the child should exhale fully, place the spacer in
the mouth, press the canister, inhale slowly and deeply, and then hold the breath for 5-10 seconds. This
allows the medication to deposit in the lungs. Rapid inhalation can cause the medication to impact in
the oropharynx. This is a key teaching point for pediatric asthma management and is vital for nursing
student success.
6. A nurse is teaching parents about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) prevention. Which statement
by the parents indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will place my baby on their side to sleep."
B. "I will place my baby on their back to sleep."
C. "I will put soft toys in the crib to keep the baby warm."
D. "I will use a crib bumper to prevent injury."
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their backs to
sleep to reduce the risk of SIDS. Side-lying is not recommended. Soft toys, crib bumpers, and loose
bedding should be avoided as they are suffocation hazards. This is a cornerstone of pediatric safety and
health promotion and is a classic nursing exam prep question.
7. A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old child who has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which
clinical manifestation is the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Pale conjunctiva and mucous membranes.
B. Hyperactivity and restlessness.
C. Jaundice and dark urine.
D. Petechiae and bruising.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: A
, 💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: Pallor, particularly of the conjunctiva, mucous membranes, and nail beds, is a
common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to decreased hemoglobin. Hyperactivity is not typical;
fatigue and weakness are more common. Jaundice is associated with hemolytic anemia or liver issues.
Petechiae and bruising are associated with platelet disorders. This nursing study guide covers key
pediatric nutritional deficiencies.
8. A nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of croup. Which assessment finding is the priority for the
nurse to report?
A. Hoarse voice.
B. Barking cough.
C. Stridor at rest.
D. Low-grade fever.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: Stridor at rest is a sign of significant upper airway obstruction and impending
respiratory failure. It indicates severe respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. Hoarse
voice and barking cough are classic signs of croup but are not as emergent. A low-grade fever is
common. This is a critical assessment in pediatric respiratory emergencies and a key priority for nursing
exam prep.
9. A nurse is assessing a newborn's Apgar score at 1 minute and 5 minutes of life. Which finding is
assessed as part of the Apgar score?
A. Temperature.
B. Blood glucose.
C. Muscle tone.
D. Bilirubin level.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The Apgar score assesses five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone,
reflex irritability, and color. Each is scored from 0 to 2. Muscle tone is one of the five components.
Temperature, glucose, and bilirubin are not part of the Apgar score. This is a foundational concept in
newborn nursing.
10. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a child who has been diagnosed with
pinworms. Which instruction is most important?
and practice pack. Achieve exam success with these NCLEX-style
practice questions for student success.
---
## 🏆 Pediatric Nursing Success Guide – Complete Prep Pack |
2025/2026 NCLEX-Style Study Bundle
---
1. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who is admitted with dehydration. Which assessment finding is
the priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
A. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute.
B. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
C. Blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.
D. Urine output of 1 mL/kg/hr.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: A blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg is concerning, but in a 2-year-old, the normal
systolic blood pressure is around 90-100 mmHg. However, the most significant sign of shock in children
is hypotension, which is a late and ominous sign. While tachycardia (A) and tachypnea (B) are expected
compensatory mechanisms in dehydration, hypotension indicates decompensation. A urine output of 1
mL/kg/hr is adequate. This nursing exam prep question emphasizes the importance of recognizing early
signs of shock in pediatric patients.
2. The mother of a 6-month-old infant asks the nurse when she should start feeding her baby solid
foods. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "You can start solids at 4 months."
B. "Start solids at 6 months, beginning with single-grain cereals."
C. "Wait until your baby is 1 year old."
,D. "Start with meats and vegetables at 8 months."
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends introducing solid foods around 6
months of age, starting with iron-fortified single-grain cereals. Starting solids too early (before 4
months) can increase the risk of allergies and obesity. Waiting too long (after 6-8 months) may cause
nutritional deficiencies and feeding difficulties. This pediatric nursing study guide provides evidence-
based developmental milestones for student success in well-child care.
3. A nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child with suspected acute otitis media. Which assessment finding is
most indicative of this condition?
A. Clear drainage from the ear.
B. The child pulls on the affected ear.
C. The child reports a headache.
D. Pain that is worse in the morning.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: Ear pulling, tugging, or rubbing is a classic sign of ear pain in young children who
cannot verbalize their discomfort. This is a common behavioral indicator of acute otitis media. Clear
drainage may indicate a perforated eardrum or other issues. Headaches can occur but are not specific.
Pain is typically worse at night or when lying down. This nursing practice question reinforces the
importance of behavioral cues in pediatric assessments.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a vaccine to a 2-month-old infant. Which vaccine is typically
administered at this age?
A. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella).
B. Varicella (chickenpox).
C. DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis).
D. Hepatitis A.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The DTaP vaccine is routinely given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age. The MMR and
varicella vaccines are given at 12-15 months. Hepatitis A is given at 12-23 months. This question
highlights the importance of adhering to the recommended immunization schedule, a core responsibility
in pediatric nursing and a frequent topic in nursing exam prep.
,5. A nurse is caring for a child with asthma who is prescribed albuterol via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)
with a spacer. The nurse should instruct the child to:
A. Inhale rapidly and deeply.
B. Hold the breath for 5-10 seconds after inhalation.
C. Exhale forcefully into the spacer.
D. Take a deep breath before pressing the canister.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: For effective medication delivery, the child should exhale fully, place the spacer in
the mouth, press the canister, inhale slowly and deeply, and then hold the breath for 5-10 seconds. This
allows the medication to deposit in the lungs. Rapid inhalation can cause the medication to impact in
the oropharynx. This is a key teaching point for pediatric asthma management and is vital for nursing
student success.
6. A nurse is teaching parents about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) prevention. Which statement
by the parents indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will place my baby on their side to sleep."
B. "I will place my baby on their back to sleep."
C. "I will put soft toys in the crib to keep the baby warm."
D. "I will use a crib bumper to prevent injury."
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: B
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their backs to
sleep to reduce the risk of SIDS. Side-lying is not recommended. Soft toys, crib bumpers, and loose
bedding should be avoided as they are suffocation hazards. This is a cornerstone of pediatric safety and
health promotion and is a classic nursing exam prep question.
7. A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old child who has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which
clinical manifestation is the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Pale conjunctiva and mucous membranes.
B. Hyperactivity and restlessness.
C. Jaundice and dark urine.
D. Petechiae and bruising.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: A
, 💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: Pallor, particularly of the conjunctiva, mucous membranes, and nail beds, is a
common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to decreased hemoglobin. Hyperactivity is not typical;
fatigue and weakness are more common. Jaundice is associated with hemolytic anemia or liver issues.
Petechiae and bruising are associated with platelet disorders. This nursing study guide covers key
pediatric nutritional deficiencies.
8. A nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of croup. Which assessment finding is the priority for the
nurse to report?
A. Hoarse voice.
B. Barking cough.
C. Stridor at rest.
D. Low-grade fever.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: Stridor at rest is a sign of significant upper airway obstruction and impending
respiratory failure. It indicates severe respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. Hoarse
voice and barking cough are classic signs of croup but are not as emergent. A low-grade fever is
common. This is a critical assessment in pediatric respiratory emergencies and a key priority for nursing
exam prep.
9. A nurse is assessing a newborn's Apgar score at 1 minute and 5 minutes of life. Which finding is
assessed as part of the Apgar score?
A. Temperature.
B. Blood glucose.
C. Muscle tone.
D. Bilirubin level.
💫ANSWER✔️✔️: C
💫RATIONALE✔️✔️: The Apgar score assesses five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone,
reflex irritability, and color. Each is scored from 0 to 2. Muscle tone is one of the five components.
Temperature, glucose, and bilirubin are not part of the Apgar score. This is a foundational concept in
newborn nursing.
10. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a child who has been diagnosed with
pinworms. Which instruction is most important?
