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NSG 4100 Exam 1 – Comprehensive Practice Questions with Answers and Rationales 100% PASS!!!

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This document is a comprehensive study and exam preparation resource for NSG 4100 Exam 1. It contains practice questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales designed to support nursing students in mastering foundational course concepts and preparing for examinations. The content typically covers introductory medical-surgical nursing principles, basic patient assessment skills, nursing process (ADPIE), infection prevention and control, vital signs interpretation, therapeutic communication, documentation standards, safety principles, and fundamental pharmacology concepts. It may also include topics such as patient-centered care, ethical and legal responsibilities in nursing practice, prioritization basics, and clinical decision-making in early nursing practice settings. The material is structured in a question-and-answer format to reinforce essential nursing knowledge, strengthen clinical reasoning skills, and support preparation for NSG 4100 Exam 1.

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Institution
NSG 4100
Course
NSG 4100

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NSG 4100 Exam 1 – Comprehensive Practice Questions with
Answers and Rationales 100% PASS!!!


SECTION 1: PERFUSION – CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
(Questions 1-25)




Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with unstable angina. Which medication should the nurse
anticipate administering to reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

A) Nitroglycerin sublingual
B) Morphine sulfate IV
C) Metoprolol PO
D) Aspirin PO

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing
heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility. This is a priority in unstable angina to prevent
progression to MI. Nitroglycerin (A) and morphine (B) treat pain but do not directly reduce
oxygen demand long-term. Aspirin (D) is antiplatelet therapy.




Question 2
A patient with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which assessment finding indicates
the medication is effective?

A) Increased urine output
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Weight gain
D) Crackles in the lung bases

Correct Answer: A

,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes fluid excretion, reducing preload and
symptoms of fluid overload. Increased urine output indicates effectiveness. Weight loss (not
gain, C), decreased crackles (not present, D), and improved dyspnea are also expected.




Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding is consistent
with this condition?

A) Crackles in the lung bases
B) Jugular venous distention
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Orthopnea

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion, leading to jugular venous
distention, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. Crackles (A), pulmonary edema (C), and
orthopnea (D) are signs of left-sided heart failure.




Question 4
Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an
acute myocardial infarction (MI)?

A) Administer aspirin
B) Administer morphine
C) Apply oxygen
D) Obtain a 12-lead ECG

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is a priority intervention in acute MI because it reduces mortality by
preventing further platelet aggregation. While oxygen (C), morphine (B), and ECG (D) are
important, aspirin should be given immediately unless contraindicated.




Question 5

,A patient with hypertension is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. The nurse should monitor for
which adverse effect?

A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Tachycardia
D) Weight gain

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone secretion, leading
to potassium retention. Hypokalemia (B) is associated with diuretics. Tachycardia (C) and
weight gain (D) are not typical adverse effects.




Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which assessment
finding is expected?

A) Warm, pink extremities
B) Dependent rubor
C) Bounding pulses
D) Edema

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dependent rubor (redness when the extremity is dependent) is a classic sign of PAD
due to arteriolar dilation in response to ischemia. Pulses are diminished (not bounding, C),
extremities are cool (not warm, A), and edema (D) is more common in venous insufficiency.




Question 7
A patient with chronic venous insufficiency is at risk for which complication?

A) Arterial ulcers
B) Venous stasis ulcers
C) Gangrene
D) Intermittent claudication

Correct Answer: B

, Rationale: Venous stasis ulcers are a complication of chronic venous insufficiency due to
prolonged venous hypertension. Arterial ulcers (A) and gangrene (C) are complications of PAD.
Intermittent claudication (D) is characteristic of PAD.




Question 8
Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?

A) Age
B) Gender
C) Smoking
D) Family history

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Smoking is a modifiable risk factor. Age (A), gender (B), and family history (D) are
non-modifiable risk factors.




Question 9
A patient with heart failure is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the nurse
teach the patient to avoid?

A) Fresh fruits
B) Canned vegetables
C) Grilled chicken
D) Brown rice

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Canned vegetables often contain high amounts of sodium. Fresh or frozen
vegetables without added salt are better choices. Fresh fruits (A), grilled chicken (C), and brown
rice (D) are generally low in sodium.




Question 10

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