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CEN Flashcards: Emergency Nursing Certification Quick Review Cards for Exam Prep (High-Yield Topics)

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CEN Flashcards: Emergency Nursing Certification Quick Review Cards for Exam Prep (High-Yield Topics)

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CEN Flashcards: Emergency Nursing Certification Quick Review Cards for Exam
Prep (High-Yield Topics)


The most common symptom of a patient who has a pinworm infection is



A. diarrhea

B. anorexia

C. abdominal pain

D. perianal pruritus - correct answer ✔✔D. Perianal pruritus



Pinworms are the most common cause of anal pruritus in children



A patient is being discharged with a presumptive diagnosis of primary herpes simplex viral
infection. the patient understands discharge instructions if she states,



A. "Acyclovir will cure my herpes"

B. "My boyfriend will not get this if he uses a condom"

C. "If I get pregnant, I can pass the disease to my baby."

D. "I know that this first episode will last only 4 or 5 days." - correct answer ✔✔C. "If I get
pregnant, I can pass the disease to my baby."

The greatest risk to the fetus occurs when overt HSV infection is present at the time of delivery.
In this situation, the principal mechanism of infection is direct contact with the infected vesicles
during the process of vaginal birth.



A patient comes to the emergency department 30 minutes after an insect bite to the leg. The
wound is erythematous, swollen, and indurated. The emergency nurse should first



A. Perform an Allen's test.

,B. Examine the inguinal lymph nodes.

C. Check the pulses proximal to the wound.

D. Evaluate inspiratory and expiratory breath sounds. - correct answer ✔✔D. Evaluate
inspiratory and expiratory breath sounds.



Patients with insect bites are at risk for anaphylactic reactions. In assessing for systemic
reactions, ABC's are a priority. Assessment for breathing includes evaluating breath sounds.



Which of the following is the most common finding in pulmonary embolism?



A. Dyspnea

B. Crackles (rales)

C. Fever

D. Hemoptysis - correct answer ✔✔A. Dyspnea



With pulmonary embolus, common signs and symptoms include shortness of breath,
tachypnea, tachycardia, and sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain that increases with respirations.
Dyspnea is the most common sign of pulmonary embolism. Crackles and hemoptysis are likely
to be associated with pulmonary edema. Fever is a possible finding in patients with a
pulmonary, but it is not common.



Assessment of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis reveals ascites and diminished breath
sounds in the right lower lobe. Vital signs are: BP 109/70, HR 110, and RR 38. The emergency
nurse should suspect that the patient has developed



A. Pneumonia

B. A pneumothorax

C. Pleural effusion.

D. A diaphragmatic hernia. - correct answer ✔✔C. Pleural effusion.

,Pleural effusion is an excess of fluid trapped in the intrapleural space of the lugs. In pancreatitis,
this occurs because fluid associated with ascites moves from the periotenal space into the
pleural space through lymph channels. Seventy percent of pleural effusions occur on the right
side.



A confused elderly woman has a blood glucose level of 1175 mg/dL (65mmol/L). Serum ketones
are negative and arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.25. The emergency nurse should anticipate
an order to administer which of the following first?



A. Sodium bicarbonate

B. Potassium chloride

C. High-dose insulin

D. Large volumes of IV fluids - correct answer ✔✔D. Large volumes of IV fluids

Increased glucose, negative keytones, and acidosis are signs and symptoms of hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic non ketotic coma. In the treatment of this state, the goals are rehydration and
correcting electrolyte imbalances before potassium replacement and insulin.



A patient who has been in a motorcycle crash is awake, alert, and oriented, but complains of
severe neck pain. A cross-table lateral radiograph demonstrates a fracture of the second and
third cervical vertebrae. Shortly after the radiograph is taken, the patient experiences
respiratory arrest appropriate initial management of the airway should consist of

A. endotracheal intubation

B. administration of oxygen via nasal cannula

C. Jaw thrust maneuver and ventilation with a bag-mask device

D. head-tilt maneuver and placement of an oropharyngeal airway. - correct answer ✔✔C. Jaw-
thrust maneuver and ventilation with a bag-mask device.

, The jaw thrust maneuver should be used as the basic airway management in any patient with a
suspected cervical spine injury without tilting the head. Endotracheal intubation will be done,
but it is not the first action to be taken.



Which of the following statements should be included in discharge instructions for a patient
who has undergone treatment for epistaxis?

A. "Drink plenty of hot fluids"

B. "Open your mouth while sneezing."

C. "Avoid humidity in the environment"

D. "Reduce sodium intake" - correct answer ✔✔B. "Open your mouth while sneezing"



Sneezing with the mouth closed will force air through the nasal passages, possibly dislodging
the clot; therefore starting the bleeding again.



An alert patient sustains blunt trauma to the abdomen in a MVC. The patient refuses to allow
invasive treatments. Initial assessment reveals and ecchymotic area in the left upper quadrant.
The ER nurse should

A. Allow the patient to leave after signing a medical release form.

B. Request an order to sedate patient

C. assess the patients neurological status

D. obtain consent from a relative treatment. - correct answer ✔✔C. Assess the patients
neurological status.

A rational, competent adult can refuse any treatment. The first step is to establish the patients
ability to understand the consequences of refusing treatment. Due to the mechanism of injury,
the patient should be evaluated for the presence of a head injury.



The best indication of adequate tissue perfusion in a patient in shock is

A. a urine output of 30mL/hr

B. An oxygen saturation of > 70%

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