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CCT ACTUAL TEST BANK 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS GRADED A+

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CCT ACTUAL TEST BANK 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS GRADED A+

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CCT ACTUAL TEST BANK 2026 SOLVED
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
GRADED A+

●● An intubated patient being prepared for transport is gagging,
mouthing her tube, and raising her head off the ED bed. What should the
CCT medic do?
Answer: Contact the patient's nurse and MD.


●● List the elements of assessment of the CCT patient.
Answer: Size up, HPI, chart review, ongoing meds, pre-transport
interventions, moving tubes/lines, rechecking patency, collection
bags/suctioning, and documents.


●● What is the hierarchy of medical control for CCT transports?
Answer: Sending facility, receiving facility, then your CCT medical
director. When in doubt, use the last physician to see the patient.


●● How do you handle giving report when you had to change the vent
settings en route?
Answer: Notify the receiving facility of what change you made and
reason for the change, and the subsequent patient outcome.

,●● Recall the difference between protocols and standing orders. Can
you honor a verbal order as you are "heading out the door" with a
patient?
Answer: As long as it is the patient's sending facility doctor giving them.


●● What are the requirements for Medicare reimbursement for SCT?
Answer: The patient must be critically ill or injured, the transport must
be interfacility, and the care provided must be beyond the scope of a
paramedic.


●● Identify a case in which a hospital would be exempt from the
requirement to provide a patient with an appropriate screening exam and
stabilizing treatment.
Answer: The hospital does not partake in Medicare or Medicaid.


●● Who is responsible for all clincial aspects of a CCT program?
Answer: The CCT medical director.


●● What makes a transfer CCT-eligible?
Answer: Most IV meds (no antibiotics, electrolytes, or TPN), vents,
chest tubes, balloon pumps, fresh pacemakers, NICU/PICU, and
emergent OB transfers (preterm labor, preeclampsia, fetal distress).

,Electrolytes like magnesium sulfate only count if they are being used as
a medicine, as in correcting an acute issue and not correcting an
abnormal lab value.


TPN only counts if insulin is mixed in.


●● What is lobular consolidation indicative of?
Answer: Pneumonia.


●● What is a flattened diaphragm suggestive of?
Answer: Hyper-inflated lungs (COPD, emphysema).


●● What features would you note on the chest x-ray of a patient with
ARDS?
Answer: Edema is patchy and bilateral and the film is "foggy,"
appearance of "ground glass."


●● How are different densities represented on an x-ray?
Answer: Low density: black (air).
High density: white (bone, metal, contrast material).


●● What diagnosis is consistent with a "ground glass" appearance of the
lungs?

, Answer: ARDS.


●● What is the normal hemoglobin (HgB) range for men and women?
Answer: Men: 13 to 18 g/dL.
Women: 12 to 16 g/dL.


●● A diagnostic test that is just fair at detecting disease, but has very few
false positives, can be described as having LOW SENSITIVITY and
HIGH SPECIFICITY.
Answer: High SPECIFICITY = low false positives. High SENSITIVITY
= low false negatives.


●● What lab should you monitor for a patient receiving heparin? What is
the upper limit of this value that would require you to decrease the dose?
Answer: aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Normal is 25 to
40 seconds, and a critical lab is valued at > 65.


●● Why would a patient receive vitamin K?
Answer: To help with blood clotting.


●● An 18 year old is suffering from meningococcal meningitis. You
would expect his WBC differential to display what abnormality?
Answer: An increase in neutrophils.

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