Page 1 of 42
MATERNAL CHILD EXAM PREP PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
NEWEST 2026 EXAM VERIFIED 100%
Maternal-Child Exam 1 Practice Questions
A 26-year-old G1 P0 is seen in the clinic for her routine prenatal visit at 29
weeks' gestation. On examination the nurse notes that she has gained 8 lb
since her last visit, 2 weeks ago; that her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and
that she has 1+ proteinuria on urine dipstick. What is the likely diagnosis for
this client?
1
Mild preeclampsia
2
Severe preeclampsia
3
Chronic hypertension
4
Gestational hypertension
1
Preeclampsia is hypertension that develops after 20 weeks' gestation in a previously
normotensive woman. With mild preeclampsia the systolic blood pressure is below
160 mm Hg and diastolic BP is below 110 mm Hg. Proteinuria is present, but there is
no evidence of organ dysfunction. Severe preeclampsia is a systolic blood pressure
of greater than 160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure of at least 110 mm Hg and
proteinuria of 5 g or more per 24-hour specimen. Chronic hypertension is
hypertension that is present before the pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks'
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gestation. Gestational hypertension is the onset of hypertension during pregnancy
without other signs or symptoms of preeclampsia and without preexisting
hypertension.
A woman is being seen in the prenatal clinic at 36 weeks' gestation. The nurse
is reviewing signs and symptoms that should be reported to health care
provider with the mother. Which signs and symptoms require further
evaluation by the health care provider? Select all that apply.
1
Decreased urine output
2
Blurred vision with spots
3
Urinary frequency without dysuria
4
Heartburn after eating a fatty meal
5
Contractions that are regular and 5 minutes apart
6
Shortness of breath after climbing a flight of stairs
1, 2, 5
Decreased urine output, blurred vision, and severe headache may occur with
pregnancy-associated hypertension. Contractions that become regular are
associated with the onset of labor. Preparatory (Braxton Hicks) contractions ease
when the client walks. Swelling of the face and hands is a warning sign. Urinary
frequency occurs in the first trimester and again in the third trimester as the uterus
settles back into the pelvis. The weight of the uterus may delay emptying of the
stomach and make heartburn a more frequent problem. Shortness of breath would
be expected after the client climbs a flight of stairs.
A 14-year-old emancipated minor at 22 weeks' gestation comes in for her
second prenatal examination. As she enters the examination room with her
mother, she tells the nurse that she does not want her mother present for the
examination. What should the nurse say?
1
, Page 3 of 42
"Your mother needs to be present for the examination."
2
"What's the problem with your mother being present?"
3
"I'm sure that your mother wants to be with you for support."
4
Tell the mother, "I'm sorry, but I need to ask you to stay in the waiting area.
4
In many states a minor who is self supporting and living away from home, providing
military service, married, pregnant, or a parent is considered a emancipated minor.
The emancipated minor assumes most responsibilities before the age of 18 years.
An emancipated minor is entitled to confidentiality in dealings with health care
providers.
A client at 35 weeks' gestation who has had no prenatal care arrives in labor
and delivery and is found to be 20 percent effaced and 2 cm dilated, with her
membranes intact and contractions 3 minutes apart. The nurse notices some
ruptured blisterlike vesicles in the genital area. What should the nurse's next
action be?
1
Educating the client on what to expect during labor
2
Discussing pain management options available during labor
3
Discussing the possibility of using Pitocin to move labor along
4
Contacting the health care provider about the need for a cesarean birth
4
Transmission of genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) to the newborn can occur
during vaginal delivery when active lesions are present. Blindness, brain damage, or
death could result if early measures are not taken. The priority is informing the health
care provider of the presence of active genital herpes lesions so preparations for a
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cesarean birth may be made. The nurse would not want to enhance contractions;
instead the nurse will begin preparations for a cesarean birth as soon as possible.
A pregnant client arrives at the prenatal clinic, and the nurse obtains her
obstetrical history. The client has two children at home, one born at 38 weeks'
gestation and the second born at 34 weeks' gestation. She has also had one
miscarriage, at 18 weeks, and an elective abortion. Using the GTPAL system,
what is the client's obstetrical record?
1
G5 T1 P1 A2 L2
2
G4 T2 P2 A1 L4
3
G2 T3 P3 A2 L1
4
G3 T2 P1 A3 L3
1
G (gravida) stands for the total number of pregnancies a client has had. Gravida 5
indicates that this is the client's fifth pregnancy. T (term) stands for the number of
neonates born at the expected date of birth. The neonate born at 38 weeks'
gestation was born at term. P (preterm) stands for the number of neonates born
before the expected date of birth. The neonate born at 34 weeks' gestation was born
preterm. A (abortion or miscarriage) stands for the birth of a fetus before 20 weeks'
gestation. Both the miscarriage and elective abortion are considered abortions. L
(living) stands for the number of living children at the time of assessment. The client
has two living children.
A client arrives at the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she thinks that
she is pregnant. The first day of the client's last menstrual period (LMP) was
September 14, 2011. Using Nägele's rule, what day of June 2012 is the client's
estimated date of birth (EDB)? Record your answer using a whole number for
the day of the month.
21
Add 7 days to the 1st day of the LMP and subtract 3 months.
MATERNAL CHILD EXAM PREP PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
NEWEST 2026 EXAM VERIFIED 100%
Maternal-Child Exam 1 Practice Questions
A 26-year-old G1 P0 is seen in the clinic for her routine prenatal visit at 29
weeks' gestation. On examination the nurse notes that she has gained 8 lb
since her last visit, 2 weeks ago; that her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and
that she has 1+ proteinuria on urine dipstick. What is the likely diagnosis for
this client?
1
Mild preeclampsia
2
Severe preeclampsia
3
Chronic hypertension
4
Gestational hypertension
1
Preeclampsia is hypertension that develops after 20 weeks' gestation in a previously
normotensive woman. With mild preeclampsia the systolic blood pressure is below
160 mm Hg and diastolic BP is below 110 mm Hg. Proteinuria is present, but there is
no evidence of organ dysfunction. Severe preeclampsia is a systolic blood pressure
of greater than 160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure of at least 110 mm Hg and
proteinuria of 5 g or more per 24-hour specimen. Chronic hypertension is
hypertension that is present before the pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks'
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gestation. Gestational hypertension is the onset of hypertension during pregnancy
without other signs or symptoms of preeclampsia and without preexisting
hypertension.
A woman is being seen in the prenatal clinic at 36 weeks' gestation. The nurse
is reviewing signs and symptoms that should be reported to health care
provider with the mother. Which signs and symptoms require further
evaluation by the health care provider? Select all that apply.
1
Decreased urine output
2
Blurred vision with spots
3
Urinary frequency without dysuria
4
Heartburn after eating a fatty meal
5
Contractions that are regular and 5 minutes apart
6
Shortness of breath after climbing a flight of stairs
1, 2, 5
Decreased urine output, blurred vision, and severe headache may occur with
pregnancy-associated hypertension. Contractions that become regular are
associated with the onset of labor. Preparatory (Braxton Hicks) contractions ease
when the client walks. Swelling of the face and hands is a warning sign. Urinary
frequency occurs in the first trimester and again in the third trimester as the uterus
settles back into the pelvis. The weight of the uterus may delay emptying of the
stomach and make heartburn a more frequent problem. Shortness of breath would
be expected after the client climbs a flight of stairs.
A 14-year-old emancipated minor at 22 weeks' gestation comes in for her
second prenatal examination. As she enters the examination room with her
mother, she tells the nurse that she does not want her mother present for the
examination. What should the nurse say?
1
, Page 3 of 42
"Your mother needs to be present for the examination."
2
"What's the problem with your mother being present?"
3
"I'm sure that your mother wants to be with you for support."
4
Tell the mother, "I'm sorry, but I need to ask you to stay in the waiting area.
4
In many states a minor who is self supporting and living away from home, providing
military service, married, pregnant, or a parent is considered a emancipated minor.
The emancipated minor assumes most responsibilities before the age of 18 years.
An emancipated minor is entitled to confidentiality in dealings with health care
providers.
A client at 35 weeks' gestation who has had no prenatal care arrives in labor
and delivery and is found to be 20 percent effaced and 2 cm dilated, with her
membranes intact and contractions 3 minutes apart. The nurse notices some
ruptured blisterlike vesicles in the genital area. What should the nurse's next
action be?
1
Educating the client on what to expect during labor
2
Discussing pain management options available during labor
3
Discussing the possibility of using Pitocin to move labor along
4
Contacting the health care provider about the need for a cesarean birth
4
Transmission of genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) to the newborn can occur
during vaginal delivery when active lesions are present. Blindness, brain damage, or
death could result if early measures are not taken. The priority is informing the health
care provider of the presence of active genital herpes lesions so preparations for a
, Page 4 of 42
cesarean birth may be made. The nurse would not want to enhance contractions;
instead the nurse will begin preparations for a cesarean birth as soon as possible.
A pregnant client arrives at the prenatal clinic, and the nurse obtains her
obstetrical history. The client has two children at home, one born at 38 weeks'
gestation and the second born at 34 weeks' gestation. She has also had one
miscarriage, at 18 weeks, and an elective abortion. Using the GTPAL system,
what is the client's obstetrical record?
1
G5 T1 P1 A2 L2
2
G4 T2 P2 A1 L4
3
G2 T3 P3 A2 L1
4
G3 T2 P1 A3 L3
1
G (gravida) stands for the total number of pregnancies a client has had. Gravida 5
indicates that this is the client's fifth pregnancy. T (term) stands for the number of
neonates born at the expected date of birth. The neonate born at 38 weeks'
gestation was born at term. P (preterm) stands for the number of neonates born
before the expected date of birth. The neonate born at 34 weeks' gestation was born
preterm. A (abortion or miscarriage) stands for the birth of a fetus before 20 weeks'
gestation. Both the miscarriage and elective abortion are considered abortions. L
(living) stands for the number of living children at the time of assessment. The client
has two living children.
A client arrives at the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she thinks that
she is pregnant. The first day of the client's last menstrual period (LMP) was
September 14, 2011. Using Nägele's rule, what day of June 2012 is the client's
estimated date of birth (EDB)? Record your answer using a whole number for
the day of the month.
21
Add 7 days to the 1st day of the LMP and subtract 3 months.
