MEDSURG ATI FINAL EXAM LATEST EXAM 2026 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED) | VERIFIED
ANSWERS
Question 1
A nurse is assessing an adult client’s vital signs during a routine physical examination. Which of
the following oral temperature readings falls within the normal expected range for an adult?
A) 96.4°F (35.8°C)
B) 97.2°F (36.2°C)
C) 98.6°F (37.0°C)
D) 100.2°F (37.9°C)
E) 101.5°F (38.6°C)
Correct Answer: C) 98.6°F (37.0°C)
Rationale: The normal adult temperature range is generally accepted as 97.7°F to 99.5°F
(36.5°C to 37.5°C). 98.6°F is the classic average and falls squarely within this healthy range.
Option A and B are slightly hypothermic/low, while D and E indicate a low-grade to high-
grade fever.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer a tube feeding to a client. To prevent aspiration, the nurse
should place the client in Fowler's position. At what angle should the head of the bed be
elevated?
A) 15–20 degrees
B) 30–45 degrees
C) 45–60 degrees
D) 60–90 degrees
E) 0 degrees (flat)
Correct Answer: C) 45–60 degrees
Rationale: Fowler's position involves elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 45 to 60
degrees. This position is used to promote chest expansion, facilitate breathing, and prevent
aspiration during enteral feedings. 30-45 degrees is Semi-Fowler's, and 60-90 is High-
Fowler's.
Question 3
A client is recovering from a colonoscopy and is experiencing mild gas pains. The nurse assists
the client into the Sim's position. Which of the following describes this position?
A) Lying on the back with knees flexed and feet flat on the bed.
B) Lying on the abdomen with the head turned to one side.
C) Lying on the left side with the right knee drawn up and the left arm behind the back.
D) Head of the bed at 30 degrees with knees slightly elevated.
E) Lying flat on the back with legs elevated above the level of the heart.
Correct Answer: C) Lying on the left side with the right knee drawn up and the left arm
behind the back.
, 2
Rationale: Sim's position (semi-prone) is specifically characterized by the client lying on the
left side with the right knee and thigh flexed toward the chest and the left arm positioned
behind the body. It is often used for rectal examinations, enemas, and to help eliminate
flatus.
Question 4
A client's potassium level is reported as 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following clinical
manifestations should the nurse expect to find?
A) Peaked T-waves on ECG
B) Muscle cramps and arrhythmias
C) Confusion and seizures
D) Thirst and dry mucous membranes
E) Trousseau's sign
Correct Answer: B) Muscle cramps and arrhythmias
Rationale: Normal potassium is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Hypokalemia (3.2) manifests as muscle
weakness, cramps, life-threatening arrhythmias, and specific ECG changes (such as
flattened T-waves or U-waves). Peaked T-waves indicate hyperkalemia; confusion/seizures
indicate hyponatremia; thirst indicates hypernatremia; and Trousseau's sign indicates
hypocalcemia.
Question 5
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG
change is a classic sign of this electrolyte imbalance?
A) Presence of U-waves
B) ST-segment depression
C) Peaked T-waves
D) Shortened PR interval
E) Inverted P-waves
Correct Answer: C) Peaked T-waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0) causes significant cardiac conduction disturbances. The
most common and early sign on an ECG is the development of tall, "peaked" T-waves. If
the level continues to rise, the client may experience a widened QRS complex and
eventually cardiac arrest.
Question 6
A client is admitted with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which of the following should be
the nurse's priority assessment?
A) Presence of thirst
B) Muscle weakness and cramping
C) Deep tendon reflexes
D) Neurological status and seizure activity
, 3
E) Skin turgor and mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D) Neurological status and seizure activity
Rationale: Normal sodium is 135–145 mEq/L. Hyponatremia (128) causes water to shift into
the brain cells, leading to cerebral edema. Manifestations include confusion, headache,
seizures, and abdominal cramping. Assessing neurological safety is the priority.
Question 7
A client is being treated for hypernatremia. Which of the following clinical findings is most
consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Abdominal cramping and nausea
B) Increased thirst and dry mucous membranes
C) Positive Chvostek's sign
D) Muscle tremors and irritability
E) Hypoventilation and lethargy
Correct Answer: B) Increased thirst and dry mucous membranes
Rationale: Hypernatremia (Na+ > 145) occurs when there is a deficit of water or an excess
of sodium. This draws water out of the cells, leading to cellular dehydration. Thirst is the
body's primary defense mechanism, along with restlessness and dry, sticky mucous
membranes.
Question 8
During the assessment of a client who had a thyroidectomy, the nurse notes a positive Chvostek's
sign. This finding is indicative of which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypermagnesemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypernatremia
E) Hypophosphatemia
Correct Answer: C) Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Hypocalcemia (< 9.0 mg/dL) increases neuromuscular excitability. Chvostek’s
sign (facial twitching when the facial nerve is tapped) and Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm
with BP cuff inflation) are classic indicators of tetany associated with low calcium.
Question 9
A client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.30 and a PaCO2 of 52 mmHg. The
nurse recognizes this as respiratory acidosis. Which of the following is a common cause of this
condition?
A) Hyperventilation due to anxiety
B) Excessive vomiting
C) Hypoventilation from opioid overdose
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
, 4
E) Prolonged nasogastric suctioning
Correct Answer: C) Hypoventilation from opioid overdose
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by "too much CO2" in the blood. This
occurs when the lungs cannot adequately remove CO2, usually due to hypoventilation (e.g.,
respiratory depression from meds, COPD, or airway obstruction).
Question 10
A client is hyperventilating due to a severe panic attack. The nurse should monitor the client for
which of the following acid-base imbalances?
A) Respiratory Acidosis
B) Respiratory Alkalosis
C) Metabolic Acidosis
D) Metabolic Alkalosis
E) Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory Alkalosis
Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is caused by "not enough CO2." When a client
hyperventilates, they "blow off" too much CO2, leading to an alkaline pH. The nurse
should encourage the client to slow their breathing or breathe into a paper bag to re-inhale
CO2.
Question 11
A client has been experiencing severe diarrhea for the past three days. For which acid-base
imbalance should the nurse assess?
A) Respiratory Acidosis
B) Respiratory Alkalosis
C) Metabolic Acidosis
D) Metabolic Alkalosis
E) Mixed Respiratory Acidosis
Correct Answer: C) Metabolic Acidosis
Rationale: Lower GI fluids (diarrhea) are rich in bicarbonate (base). When base is lost
through diarrhea, the body is left in an acidotic state. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is
another major cause of metabolic acidosis.
Question 12
A client requires prolonged nasogastric (NG) suctioning following abdominal surgery. The nurse
knows that this client is at high risk for which of the following?
A) Metabolic Acidosis
B) Metabolic Alkalosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
E) Hyperkalemia
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST VERSION (JUST RELEASED) | VERIFIED
ANSWERS
Question 1
A nurse is assessing an adult client’s vital signs during a routine physical examination. Which of
the following oral temperature readings falls within the normal expected range for an adult?
A) 96.4°F (35.8°C)
B) 97.2°F (36.2°C)
C) 98.6°F (37.0°C)
D) 100.2°F (37.9°C)
E) 101.5°F (38.6°C)
Correct Answer: C) 98.6°F (37.0°C)
Rationale: The normal adult temperature range is generally accepted as 97.7°F to 99.5°F
(36.5°C to 37.5°C). 98.6°F is the classic average and falls squarely within this healthy range.
Option A and B are slightly hypothermic/low, while D and E indicate a low-grade to high-
grade fever.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer a tube feeding to a client. To prevent aspiration, the nurse
should place the client in Fowler's position. At what angle should the head of the bed be
elevated?
A) 15–20 degrees
B) 30–45 degrees
C) 45–60 degrees
D) 60–90 degrees
E) 0 degrees (flat)
Correct Answer: C) 45–60 degrees
Rationale: Fowler's position involves elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 45 to 60
degrees. This position is used to promote chest expansion, facilitate breathing, and prevent
aspiration during enteral feedings. 30-45 degrees is Semi-Fowler's, and 60-90 is High-
Fowler's.
Question 3
A client is recovering from a colonoscopy and is experiencing mild gas pains. The nurse assists
the client into the Sim's position. Which of the following describes this position?
A) Lying on the back with knees flexed and feet flat on the bed.
B) Lying on the abdomen with the head turned to one side.
C) Lying on the left side with the right knee drawn up and the left arm behind the back.
D) Head of the bed at 30 degrees with knees slightly elevated.
E) Lying flat on the back with legs elevated above the level of the heart.
Correct Answer: C) Lying on the left side with the right knee drawn up and the left arm
behind the back.
, 2
Rationale: Sim's position (semi-prone) is specifically characterized by the client lying on the
left side with the right knee and thigh flexed toward the chest and the left arm positioned
behind the body. It is often used for rectal examinations, enemas, and to help eliminate
flatus.
Question 4
A client's potassium level is reported as 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following clinical
manifestations should the nurse expect to find?
A) Peaked T-waves on ECG
B) Muscle cramps and arrhythmias
C) Confusion and seizures
D) Thirst and dry mucous membranes
E) Trousseau's sign
Correct Answer: B) Muscle cramps and arrhythmias
Rationale: Normal potassium is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Hypokalemia (3.2) manifests as muscle
weakness, cramps, life-threatening arrhythmias, and specific ECG changes (such as
flattened T-waves or U-waves). Peaked T-waves indicate hyperkalemia; confusion/seizures
indicate hyponatremia; thirst indicates hypernatremia; and Trousseau's sign indicates
hypocalcemia.
Question 5
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG
change is a classic sign of this electrolyte imbalance?
A) Presence of U-waves
B) ST-segment depression
C) Peaked T-waves
D) Shortened PR interval
E) Inverted P-waves
Correct Answer: C) Peaked T-waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0) causes significant cardiac conduction disturbances. The
most common and early sign on an ECG is the development of tall, "peaked" T-waves. If
the level continues to rise, the client may experience a widened QRS complex and
eventually cardiac arrest.
Question 6
A client is admitted with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which of the following should be
the nurse's priority assessment?
A) Presence of thirst
B) Muscle weakness and cramping
C) Deep tendon reflexes
D) Neurological status and seizure activity
, 3
E) Skin turgor and mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D) Neurological status and seizure activity
Rationale: Normal sodium is 135–145 mEq/L. Hyponatremia (128) causes water to shift into
the brain cells, leading to cerebral edema. Manifestations include confusion, headache,
seizures, and abdominal cramping. Assessing neurological safety is the priority.
Question 7
A client is being treated for hypernatremia. Which of the following clinical findings is most
consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Abdominal cramping and nausea
B) Increased thirst and dry mucous membranes
C) Positive Chvostek's sign
D) Muscle tremors and irritability
E) Hypoventilation and lethargy
Correct Answer: B) Increased thirst and dry mucous membranes
Rationale: Hypernatremia (Na+ > 145) occurs when there is a deficit of water or an excess
of sodium. This draws water out of the cells, leading to cellular dehydration. Thirst is the
body's primary defense mechanism, along with restlessness and dry, sticky mucous
membranes.
Question 8
During the assessment of a client who had a thyroidectomy, the nurse notes a positive Chvostek's
sign. This finding is indicative of which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypermagnesemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypernatremia
E) Hypophosphatemia
Correct Answer: C) Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Hypocalcemia (< 9.0 mg/dL) increases neuromuscular excitability. Chvostek’s
sign (facial twitching when the facial nerve is tapped) and Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm
with BP cuff inflation) are classic indicators of tetany associated with low calcium.
Question 9
A client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.30 and a PaCO2 of 52 mmHg. The
nurse recognizes this as respiratory acidosis. Which of the following is a common cause of this
condition?
A) Hyperventilation due to anxiety
B) Excessive vomiting
C) Hypoventilation from opioid overdose
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
, 4
E) Prolonged nasogastric suctioning
Correct Answer: C) Hypoventilation from opioid overdose
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by "too much CO2" in the blood. This
occurs when the lungs cannot adequately remove CO2, usually due to hypoventilation (e.g.,
respiratory depression from meds, COPD, or airway obstruction).
Question 10
A client is hyperventilating due to a severe panic attack. The nurse should monitor the client for
which of the following acid-base imbalances?
A) Respiratory Acidosis
B) Respiratory Alkalosis
C) Metabolic Acidosis
D) Metabolic Alkalosis
E) Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory Alkalosis
Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is caused by "not enough CO2." When a client
hyperventilates, they "blow off" too much CO2, leading to an alkaline pH. The nurse
should encourage the client to slow their breathing or breathe into a paper bag to re-inhale
CO2.
Question 11
A client has been experiencing severe diarrhea for the past three days. For which acid-base
imbalance should the nurse assess?
A) Respiratory Acidosis
B) Respiratory Alkalosis
C) Metabolic Acidosis
D) Metabolic Alkalosis
E) Mixed Respiratory Acidosis
Correct Answer: C) Metabolic Acidosis
Rationale: Lower GI fluids (diarrhea) are rich in bicarbonate (base). When base is lost
through diarrhea, the body is left in an acidotic state. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is
another major cause of metabolic acidosis.
Question 12
A client requires prolonged nasogastric (NG) suctioning following abdominal surgery. The nurse
knows that this client is at high risk for which of the following?
A) Metabolic Acidosis
B) Metabolic Alkalosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
E) Hyperkalemia
