NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final
Exam ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Clinical
Reasoning Review | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[Section 1: Safety & Infection Control — 12 Questions]
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is most appropriate when entering the patient's room?
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves only
C. Mask and eye protection
D. N95 respirator and gown
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and gown for C. diff because transmission occurs through
contact with contaminated surfaces or feces. Gloves alone are insufficient because clothing can become
contaminated. Mask and eye protection are for droplet or splash precautions, not contact. N95
respirators are for airborne precautions and unnecessary for C. diff.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via intramuscular injection. Which action
demonstrates correct sterile technique?
A. Wiping the vial stopper with alcohol and allowing it to dry before drawing medication
B. Touching the needle hub to the vial stopper to stabilize it
C. Recapping the needle after drawing up the medication to prevent contamination
D. Using the same needle to draw medication and administer it to the patient
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cleaning the vial stopper with alcohol and allowing it to dry prevents contamination of the
medication. Touching the needle hub compromises sterility. Recapping needles is prohibited due to
sharps injury risk. Using the same needle for drawing and administering can dull the needle and increase
patient discomfort and tissue trauma.
,Q3: A fire breaks out in a hospital room. The nurse remembers the RACE acronym. What is the correct
sequence of actions?
A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
B. Run, Alert, Call, Exit
C. Rescue, Alert, Contain, Extinguish
D. Remove, Alarm, Confine, Escape
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue patients in immediate danger, Activate the alarm, Confine the fire by
closing doors, and Extinguish if possible or Evacuate. The other options either use incorrect terms or
omit critical steps like confining the fire to prevent spread.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis (TB) who is on airborne precautions. Which
statement by the nurse indicates correct understanding?
A. "I can remove my N95 respirator when I am three feet away from the patient."
B. "I need to wear an N95 respirator or PAPR before entering the room."
C. "A standard surgical mask is sufficient when providing direct care."
D. "I only need to wear the N95 when performing aerosol-generating procedures."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator or PAPR for all entry into the room because
TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. The respirator cannot be removed in the room. Surgical
masks do not filter airborne particles. N95 is required for all care, not just aerosol-generating
procedures.
Q5: A nurse is preparing to insert a Foley catheter. Which action demonstrates correct surgical asepsis?
A. Opening the sterile kit and placing the sterile drape under the patient's buttocks with clean hands
B. Touching the sterile catheter with clean gloves to guide insertion
C. Maintaining the sterile field above waist level and facing the nurse
D. Using the dominant hand to hold the sterile specimen container while touching the perineum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sterile field must remain above waist level and facing the nurse to prevent contamination
from below or behind. The sterile drape should be placed with sterile gloved hands, not clean hands.
The catheter must be touched only with sterile gloves. The dominant hand should remain sterile and not
touch the perineum.
,Q6: A patient is at high risk for falls. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Placing the call light within the patient's reach and ensuring the bed is in the lowest position
B. Applying a vest restraint to prevent the patient from getting out of bed
C. Keeping the bed in a high position for easier access
D. Removing all side rails to encourage independent mobility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the call light accessible and the bed in the lowest position are evidence-based fall
prevention strategies. Restraints are last resort and require a physician's order. A high bed increases fall
risk. Removing side rails removes a safety barrier and increases fall risk.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a patient on seizure precautions. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside for use during a seizure
B. Raising the side rails and keeping the bed in the lowest position
C. Restraining the patient's extremities to prevent injury during a seizure
D. Inserting an oral airway during the seizure to maintain the airway
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Raised side rails with padding and a low bed position protect the patient from injury during a
seizure. Tongue blades are no longer recommended and can cause injury. Restraining extremities can
cause fractures or muscle injury. Inserting anything into the mouth during a seizure risks dental trauma
and airway obstruction.
Q8: A nurse is preparing to use a fire extinguisher. The nurse remembers the PASS acronym. What is the
correct sequence?
A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B. Point, Aim, Spray, Sweep
C. Pull, Aim, Spray, Sweep
D. Press, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from
side to side. "Spray" and "Press" are incorrect terms. Aiming at the base is critical because extinguishing
the fuel source is what puts out the fire.
, Q9: A nurse is caring for a patient with a wound infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA). Which type of isolation precautions are required?
A. Standard precautions only
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MRSA requires contact precautions because transmission occurs through direct contact with
the patient or contaminated environment. Standard precautions alone are insufficient. Droplet
precautions are for pathogens spread by respiratory droplets. Airborne precautions are for pathogens
transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei.
Q10: A nurse is performing hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub. Which action is correct?
A. Applying the rub to dry hands and rubbing until hands are completely dry
B. Washing hands with soap and water first, then applying the alcohol rub
C. Applying the rub to wet hands for better coverage
D. Rubbing hands together for 10 seconds before drying
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol-based rubs should be applied to dry hands and rubbed until completely dry, which
takes approximately 20-30 seconds. Soap and water are not needed first unless hands are visibly soiled.
Wet hands dilute the alcohol and reduce effectiveness. Ten seconds is insufficient for adequate
coverage.
Q11: A nurse is caring for a patient who requires restraints for safety. Which action demonstrates the
nurse's understanding of restraint use?
A. Securing the restraints to the bed frame with a quick-release knot
B. Checking the patient's circulation and skin integrity every 15 minutes
C. Ordering restraints independently without a physician's order
D. Leaving the patient alone in a dimly lit room to promote rest
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraint protocols require assessment of circulation, skin integrity, and range of motion
every 15 minutes. Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot to the bed frame, not the side
rail. Restraints always require a physician's order and must be reassessed regularly. Leaving a restrained
patient unattended is unsafe.
Exam ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Clinical
Reasoning Review | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[Section 1: Safety & Infection Control — 12 Questions]
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is most appropriate when entering the patient's room?
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves only
C. Mask and eye protection
D. N95 respirator and gown
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and gown for C. diff because transmission occurs through
contact with contaminated surfaces or feces. Gloves alone are insufficient because clothing can become
contaminated. Mask and eye protection are for droplet or splash precautions, not contact. N95
respirators are for airborne precautions and unnecessary for C. diff.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via intramuscular injection. Which action
demonstrates correct sterile technique?
A. Wiping the vial stopper with alcohol and allowing it to dry before drawing medication
B. Touching the needle hub to the vial stopper to stabilize it
C. Recapping the needle after drawing up the medication to prevent contamination
D. Using the same needle to draw medication and administer it to the patient
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cleaning the vial stopper with alcohol and allowing it to dry prevents contamination of the
medication. Touching the needle hub compromises sterility. Recapping needles is prohibited due to
sharps injury risk. Using the same needle for drawing and administering can dull the needle and increase
patient discomfort and tissue trauma.
,Q3: A fire breaks out in a hospital room. The nurse remembers the RACE acronym. What is the correct
sequence of actions?
A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
B. Run, Alert, Call, Exit
C. Rescue, Alert, Contain, Extinguish
D. Remove, Alarm, Confine, Escape
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue patients in immediate danger, Activate the alarm, Confine the fire by
closing doors, and Extinguish if possible or Evacuate. The other options either use incorrect terms or
omit critical steps like confining the fire to prevent spread.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis (TB) who is on airborne precautions. Which
statement by the nurse indicates correct understanding?
A. "I can remove my N95 respirator when I am three feet away from the patient."
B. "I need to wear an N95 respirator or PAPR before entering the room."
C. "A standard surgical mask is sufficient when providing direct care."
D. "I only need to wear the N95 when performing aerosol-generating procedures."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator or PAPR for all entry into the room because
TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. The respirator cannot be removed in the room. Surgical
masks do not filter airborne particles. N95 is required for all care, not just aerosol-generating
procedures.
Q5: A nurse is preparing to insert a Foley catheter. Which action demonstrates correct surgical asepsis?
A. Opening the sterile kit and placing the sterile drape under the patient's buttocks with clean hands
B. Touching the sterile catheter with clean gloves to guide insertion
C. Maintaining the sterile field above waist level and facing the nurse
D. Using the dominant hand to hold the sterile specimen container while touching the perineum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sterile field must remain above waist level and facing the nurse to prevent contamination
from below or behind. The sterile drape should be placed with sterile gloved hands, not clean hands.
The catheter must be touched only with sterile gloves. The dominant hand should remain sterile and not
touch the perineum.
,Q6: A patient is at high risk for falls. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Placing the call light within the patient's reach and ensuring the bed is in the lowest position
B. Applying a vest restraint to prevent the patient from getting out of bed
C. Keeping the bed in a high position for easier access
D. Removing all side rails to encourage independent mobility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the call light accessible and the bed in the lowest position are evidence-based fall
prevention strategies. Restraints are last resort and require a physician's order. A high bed increases fall
risk. Removing side rails removes a safety barrier and increases fall risk.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a patient on seizure precautions. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside for use during a seizure
B. Raising the side rails and keeping the bed in the lowest position
C. Restraining the patient's extremities to prevent injury during a seizure
D. Inserting an oral airway during the seizure to maintain the airway
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Raised side rails with padding and a low bed position protect the patient from injury during a
seizure. Tongue blades are no longer recommended and can cause injury. Restraining extremities can
cause fractures or muscle injury. Inserting anything into the mouth during a seizure risks dental trauma
and airway obstruction.
Q8: A nurse is preparing to use a fire extinguisher. The nurse remembers the PASS acronym. What is the
correct sequence?
A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B. Point, Aim, Spray, Sweep
C. Pull, Aim, Spray, Sweep
D. Press, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from
side to side. "Spray" and "Press" are incorrect terms. Aiming at the base is critical because extinguishing
the fuel source is what puts out the fire.
, Q9: A nurse is caring for a patient with a wound infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA). Which type of isolation precautions are required?
A. Standard precautions only
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MRSA requires contact precautions because transmission occurs through direct contact with
the patient or contaminated environment. Standard precautions alone are insufficient. Droplet
precautions are for pathogens spread by respiratory droplets. Airborne precautions are for pathogens
transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei.
Q10: A nurse is performing hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub. Which action is correct?
A. Applying the rub to dry hands and rubbing until hands are completely dry
B. Washing hands with soap and water first, then applying the alcohol rub
C. Applying the rub to wet hands for better coverage
D. Rubbing hands together for 10 seconds before drying
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol-based rubs should be applied to dry hands and rubbed until completely dry, which
takes approximately 20-30 seconds. Soap and water are not needed first unless hands are visibly soiled.
Wet hands dilute the alcohol and reduce effectiveness. Ten seconds is insufficient for adequate
coverage.
Q11: A nurse is caring for a patient who requires restraints for safety. Which action demonstrates the
nurse's understanding of restraint use?
A. Securing the restraints to the bed frame with a quick-release knot
B. Checking the patient's circulation and skin integrity every 15 minutes
C. Ordering restraints independently without a physician's order
D. Leaving the patient alone in a dimly lit room to promote rest
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraint protocols require assessment of circulation, skin integrity, and range of motion
every 15 minutes. Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot to the bed frame, not the side
rail. Restraints always require a physician's order and must be reassessed regularly. Leaving a restrained
patient unattended is unsafe.
