NUR 242
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) |
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College
(A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Heart Failure and Cardiomyopathy Management COPD and Asthma Pharmacological Interventions
Peptic Ulcer Disease and GI Bleeding Protocols Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis Care Pressure Injuries and Wound Healing Stages
COVER PAGE - 1
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 0
,Cardiovascular Disorders | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/20
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the emergency
department with worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral crackles on
auscultation. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, and he has 3+ pitting edema
in both lower extremities. The nurse recognizes these findings are consistent with
acute decompensated heart failure and prepares to administer furosemide as ordered.
What is the primary therapeutic goal of loop diuretic therapy in this patient's current
condition?
A. Reduce preload by promoting venous vasodilation and diuresis
B. Increase myocardial contractility through positive inotropic effects
C. Decrease afterload by causing arterial vasodilation
D. Slow the heart rate to improve coronary artery perfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Loop diuretics like furosemide reduce preload by promoting rapid diuresis and venous vasodilation, which
decreases fluid overload and pulmonary congestion in acute decompensated heart failure. Choice B describes
positive inotropes like digoxin or dobutamine, not diuretics.
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 0
,Cardiovascular Disorders | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/20
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 72-year-old woman with dilated cardiomyopathy is being discharged home on
carvedilol. During discharge teaching, the nurse emphasizes the importance of
monitoring for signs of worsening heart failure. The patient asks why she needs to
weigh herself every morning. What is the most appropriate rationale the nurse should
provide?
A. Sudden weight gain indicates fluid retention, which may signal cardiac decompensation
B. Weight loss confirms the medication is effectively treating the underlying disease
C. Daily weights help determine if the patient needs increased dietary sodium
D. Weight fluctuations guide the timing of the next echocardiogram
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In heart failure, a weight gain of 2-3 pounds in one day or 5 pounds in a week indicates fluid retention and
possible decompensation, requiring prompt medical evaluation. Choice B is incorrect because weight loss is
not the primary goal of carvedilol therapy, which is to reduce mortality and improve symptoms.
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 0
,Cardiovascular Disorders | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/20
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 55-year-old male is admitted with chest pain and is diagnosed with an acute
anterior wall myocardial infarction. The nurse administers morphine sulfate 2 mg IV
as ordered. Fifteen minutes later, the patient reports relief of chest pain but becomes
hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/58 mmHg. What is the nurse's priority
intervention?
A. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position and administer a 250 mL normal saline bolus
B. Administer supplemental oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Prepare to administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push
D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG to assess for extension of the infarction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Morphine can cause hypotension through venous and arterial vasodilation. Placing the patient in
Trendelenburg position and administering IV fluids is the priority to restore venous return and blood pressure.
Choice B addresses oxygenation but does not treat hypotension.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 64-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin therapy. The nurse
provides education about dietary considerations. The patient states, 'I eat a large
spinach salad every day for lunch.' What is the nurse's best response regarding this
dietary habit?
A. Consistent vitamin K intake is more important than avoiding vitamin K-rich foods entirely
B. Spinach must be completely eliminated from the diet to prevent clot formation
C. The patient should double the warfarin dose on days when spinach is consumed
D. Spinach consumption is safe because warfarin works independently of dietary factors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Patients on warfarin should maintain consistent vitamin K intake rather than avoiding it completely, as sudden
changes in vitamin K consumption can alter INR levels unpredictably. Choice B is incorrect because complete
elimination is unnecessary and can lead to INR instability.
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 0
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) |
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College
(A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Heart Failure and Cardiomyopathy Management COPD and Asthma Pharmacological Interventions
Peptic Ulcer Disease and GI Bleeding Protocols Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis Care Pressure Injuries and Wound Healing Stages
COVER PAGE - 1
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 0
,Cardiovascular Disorders | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/20
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the emergency
department with worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral crackles on
auscultation. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, and he has 3+ pitting edema
in both lower extremities. The nurse recognizes these findings are consistent with
acute decompensated heart failure and prepares to administer furosemide as ordered.
What is the primary therapeutic goal of loop diuretic therapy in this patient's current
condition?
A. Reduce preload by promoting venous vasodilation and diuresis
B. Increase myocardial contractility through positive inotropic effects
C. Decrease afterload by causing arterial vasodilation
D. Slow the heart rate to improve coronary artery perfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Loop diuretics like furosemide reduce preload by promoting rapid diuresis and venous vasodilation, which
decreases fluid overload and pulmonary congestion in acute decompensated heart failure. Choice B describes
positive inotropes like digoxin or dobutamine, not diuretics.
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 0
,Cardiovascular Disorders | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/20
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 72-year-old woman with dilated cardiomyopathy is being discharged home on
carvedilol. During discharge teaching, the nurse emphasizes the importance of
monitoring for signs of worsening heart failure. The patient asks why she needs to
weigh herself every morning. What is the most appropriate rationale the nurse should
provide?
A. Sudden weight gain indicates fluid retention, which may signal cardiac decompensation
B. Weight loss confirms the medication is effectively treating the underlying disease
C. Daily weights help determine if the patient needs increased dietary sodium
D. Weight fluctuations guide the timing of the next echocardiogram
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In heart failure, a weight gain of 2-3 pounds in one day or 5 pounds in a week indicates fluid retention and
possible decompensation, requiring prompt medical evaluation. Choice B is incorrect because weight loss is
not the primary goal of carvedilol therapy, which is to reduce mortality and improve symptoms.
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 0
,Cardiovascular Disorders | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/20
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 55-year-old male is admitted with chest pain and is diagnosed with an acute
anterior wall myocardial infarction. The nurse administers morphine sulfate 2 mg IV
as ordered. Fifteen minutes later, the patient reports relief of chest pain but becomes
hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/58 mmHg. What is the nurse's priority
intervention?
A. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position and administer a 250 mL normal saline bolus
B. Administer supplemental oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Prepare to administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push
D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG to assess for extension of the infarction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Morphine can cause hypotension through venous and arterial vasodilation. Placing the patient in
Trendelenburg position and administering IV fluids is the priority to restore venous return and blood pressure.
Choice B addresses oxygenation but does not treat hypotension.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 64-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin therapy. The nurse
provides education about dietary considerations. The patient states, 'I eat a large
spinach salad every day for lunch.' What is the nurse's best response regarding this
dietary habit?
A. Consistent vitamin K intake is more important than avoiding vitamin K-rich foods entirely
B. Spinach must be completely eliminated from the diet to prevent clot formation
C. The patient should double the warfarin dose on days when spinach is consumed
D. Spinach consumption is safe because warfarin works independently of dietary factors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Patients on warfarin should maintain consistent vitamin K intake rather than avoiding it completely, as sudden
changes in vitamin K consumption can alter INR levels unpredictably. Choice B is incorrect because complete
elimination is unnecessary and can lead to INR instability.
NUR 242 Exam 3 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 0
