ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN FINAL EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2026 | ALL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EDITION (JUST RELEASED)
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm labor.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A) Misoprostol
B) Betamethasone
C) Poractant alfa
D) Methylergonovine
E) Nifedipine
Correct Answer: B) Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid administered IM in two doses, 24 hours apart,
to clients in preterm labor between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its purpose is to stimulate
fetal lung maturity by promoting the release of surfactant, thereby reducing the risk of
respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm neonate. Misoprostol is used for cervical
ripening; Methylergonovine is for postpartum hemorrhage; and Poractant alfa is
administered directly to the neonate after birth for respiratory distress.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has mild gestational
hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report
to the provider?
A) 480 mL urine output in 24 hours
B) 1+ protein in the urine
C) +2 edema of the feet
D) Blood pressure 144/92 mmHg
E) Weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in one week
Correct Answer: A) 480 mL urine output in 24 hours
Rationale: Using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to care, the nurse must identify that a
urine output of less than 30 mL/hr (or 720 mL/24 hr) is the priority finding. In a client with
gestational hypertension, decreased urine output indicates reduced renal perfusion and
potential progression to preeclampsia with severe features (organ damage). While 1+
protein and high blood pressure are expected with the diagnosis, oliguria indicates an acute
worsening of the condition requiring immediate intervention.
Question 3
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has a new diagnosis of HIV.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "You will be placed in strict isolation after delivery."
B) "You must abstain from sexual intercourse throughout the remainder of your pregnancy."
C) "You should plan to breastfeed your newborn to provide passive immunity."
D) "You should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy."
, 2
E) "Your baby will not require any testing if you remain asymptomatic."
Correct Answer: D) you should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy
Rationale: Zidovudine (an antiretroviral) is administered throughout pregnancy and during
labor to decrease the risk of vertical transmission of HIV from the mother to the fetus. HIV
is a contraindication to breastfeeding in developed countries because the virus can be
transmitted through breast milk. Strict isolation is not required (standard precautions are
used), and sexual intercourse is not prohibited, though barrier methods are recommended
to prevent further exposure.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with oligohydramnios. Which of the
following fetal anomalies should the nurse expect to find upon further testing?
A) Renal agenesis
B) Atrial septal defect
C) Spina bifida
D) Hydrocephalus
E) Esophageal atresia
Correct Answer: A) renal agenesis
Rationale: Oligohydramnios is a deficiency of amniotic fluid (less than 300 mL). Since fetal
urine makes up the majority of the amniotic fluid volume in the second and third
trimesters, a lack of fetal kidney development (renal agenesis) or a urinary tract
obstruction leads directly to oligohydramnios. Conversely, polyhydramnios (excess fluid) is
associated with gastrointestinal anomalies like esophageal atresia, where the fetus cannot
swallow the fluid.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has a suspected pelvic fracture
due to blunt abdominal trauma. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Uterine contractions
B) Bradycardia
C) Seizures
D) Bradypnea
E) Polyuria
Correct Answer: A) uterine contractions
Rationale: Abdominal trauma in the third trimester, such as that caused by a pelvic
fracture, increases the risk of placental abruption and preterm labor. The nurse should
expect the client to experience uterine contractions as the uterus responds to the trauma or
as a result of irritability from placental separation. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and
contraction pattern is the priority assessment following trauma.
, 3
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole. Which
of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Hypothermia
B) Dark brown vaginal discharge
C) Fetal heart tones
D) Decreased urinary output
E) Low human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels
Correct Answer: B) dark brown vaginal discharge
Rationale: A hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) is a benign growth of the chorionic villi
that transforms into edematous, fluid-filled vesicles. As these cells slough off the uterine
wall, the client typically experiences vaginal discharge that is dark brown (resembling
prune juice) and may contain grapelike clusters. Other findings include rapidly increasing
fundal height (larger than expected for dates) and abnormally high hCG levels. Fetal heart
tones are absent because there is no viable fetus.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion for
preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as an
indication of magnesium toxicity?
A) Increased deep tendon reflexes (4+)
B) Respiratory rate of 10/min
C) Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
D) Blood pressure 150/98 mmHg
E) Generalized diaphoresis
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant. Signs of toxicity
include a respiratory rate less than 12/min, loss of deep tendon reflexes, decreased urine
output (less than 30 mL/hr), and a sudden drop in blood pressure. A respiratory rate of
10/min is the most critical sign of toxicity and requires immediate cessation of the
medication and administration of the antidote, calcium gluconate.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor and has an umbilical cord prolapse.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Perform a vaginal exam and apply upward pressure to the fetal presenting part.
B) Notify the provider and prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
C) Place the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position.
D) Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a nonrebreather mask.
E) Cover the protruding cord with warm, sterile saline-soaked gauze.
, 4
Correct Answer: A) Perform a vaginal exam and apply upward pressure to the fetal
presenting part.
Rationale: In the event of a cord prolapse, the immediate priority is to relieve pressure on
the umbilical cord to maintain fetal oxygenation. The nurse should insert two gloved
fingers into the vagina and apply upward pressure against the presenting part to lift it off
the cord. This position must be maintained until the delivery (usually a C-section) occurs.
Positioning and oxygen are also important, but physical relief of the compression is the
very first step.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A) Apgar score of 9 at 5 minutes
B) Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
C) Generalized petechiae over the trunk
D) Overlapping of the cranial sutures
E) Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct Answer: C) Generalized petechiae over the trunk
Rationale: Generalized petechiae can indicate a clotting factor deficiency, infection, or low
platelet count in a newborn and must be reported. Acrocyanosis (bluish hands/feet) is a
normal finding in the first 24-48 hours. Overlapping sutures (molding) and a respiratory
rate between 30-60/min are expected neonatal findings.
Question 10
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Rho(D) immune globulin. Which of
the following information should the nurse include?
A) "This medication is given to Rh-positive mothers to protect the baby."
B) "This medication prevents the formation of antibodies in Rh-negative mothers."
C) "You will only need this medication once during your lifetime."
D) "This medication is administered orally after delivery."
E) "The medication is given if both the mother and baby are Rh-negative."
Correct Answer: B) "This medication prevents the formation of antibodies in Rh-negative
mothers."
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers who may be
carrying an Rh-positive fetus. It prevents the mother's immune system from reacting to the
fetal blood and developing antibodies that could attack future pregnancies. It is typically
given at 28 weeks of gestation and again within 72 hours of delivery if the baby is found to
be Rh-positive.
Question 11
A nurse is monitoring a client in labor who has an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a fetal
CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EDITION (JUST RELEASED)
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm labor.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A) Misoprostol
B) Betamethasone
C) Poractant alfa
D) Methylergonovine
E) Nifedipine
Correct Answer: B) Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid administered IM in two doses, 24 hours apart,
to clients in preterm labor between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its purpose is to stimulate
fetal lung maturity by promoting the release of surfactant, thereby reducing the risk of
respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm neonate. Misoprostol is used for cervical
ripening; Methylergonovine is for postpartum hemorrhage; and Poractant alfa is
administered directly to the neonate after birth for respiratory distress.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has mild gestational
hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report
to the provider?
A) 480 mL urine output in 24 hours
B) 1+ protein in the urine
C) +2 edema of the feet
D) Blood pressure 144/92 mmHg
E) Weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in one week
Correct Answer: A) 480 mL urine output in 24 hours
Rationale: Using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to care, the nurse must identify that a
urine output of less than 30 mL/hr (or 720 mL/24 hr) is the priority finding. In a client with
gestational hypertension, decreased urine output indicates reduced renal perfusion and
potential progression to preeclampsia with severe features (organ damage). While 1+
protein and high blood pressure are expected with the diagnosis, oliguria indicates an acute
worsening of the condition requiring immediate intervention.
Question 3
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has a new diagnosis of HIV.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "You will be placed in strict isolation after delivery."
B) "You must abstain from sexual intercourse throughout the remainder of your pregnancy."
C) "You should plan to breastfeed your newborn to provide passive immunity."
D) "You should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy."
, 2
E) "Your baby will not require any testing if you remain asymptomatic."
Correct Answer: D) you should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy
Rationale: Zidovudine (an antiretroviral) is administered throughout pregnancy and during
labor to decrease the risk of vertical transmission of HIV from the mother to the fetus. HIV
is a contraindication to breastfeeding in developed countries because the virus can be
transmitted through breast milk. Strict isolation is not required (standard precautions are
used), and sexual intercourse is not prohibited, though barrier methods are recommended
to prevent further exposure.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with oligohydramnios. Which of the
following fetal anomalies should the nurse expect to find upon further testing?
A) Renal agenesis
B) Atrial septal defect
C) Spina bifida
D) Hydrocephalus
E) Esophageal atresia
Correct Answer: A) renal agenesis
Rationale: Oligohydramnios is a deficiency of amniotic fluid (less than 300 mL). Since fetal
urine makes up the majority of the amniotic fluid volume in the second and third
trimesters, a lack of fetal kidney development (renal agenesis) or a urinary tract
obstruction leads directly to oligohydramnios. Conversely, polyhydramnios (excess fluid) is
associated with gastrointestinal anomalies like esophageal atresia, where the fetus cannot
swallow the fluid.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has a suspected pelvic fracture
due to blunt abdominal trauma. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Uterine contractions
B) Bradycardia
C) Seizures
D) Bradypnea
E) Polyuria
Correct Answer: A) uterine contractions
Rationale: Abdominal trauma in the third trimester, such as that caused by a pelvic
fracture, increases the risk of placental abruption and preterm labor. The nurse should
expect the client to experience uterine contractions as the uterus responds to the trauma or
as a result of irritability from placental separation. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and
contraction pattern is the priority assessment following trauma.
, 3
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole. Which
of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Hypothermia
B) Dark brown vaginal discharge
C) Fetal heart tones
D) Decreased urinary output
E) Low human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels
Correct Answer: B) dark brown vaginal discharge
Rationale: A hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) is a benign growth of the chorionic villi
that transforms into edematous, fluid-filled vesicles. As these cells slough off the uterine
wall, the client typically experiences vaginal discharge that is dark brown (resembling
prune juice) and may contain grapelike clusters. Other findings include rapidly increasing
fundal height (larger than expected for dates) and abnormally high hCG levels. Fetal heart
tones are absent because there is no viable fetus.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion for
preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as an
indication of magnesium toxicity?
A) Increased deep tendon reflexes (4+)
B) Respiratory rate of 10/min
C) Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
D) Blood pressure 150/98 mmHg
E) Generalized diaphoresis
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant. Signs of toxicity
include a respiratory rate less than 12/min, loss of deep tendon reflexes, decreased urine
output (less than 30 mL/hr), and a sudden drop in blood pressure. A respiratory rate of
10/min is the most critical sign of toxicity and requires immediate cessation of the
medication and administration of the antidote, calcium gluconate.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor and has an umbilical cord prolapse.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Perform a vaginal exam and apply upward pressure to the fetal presenting part.
B) Notify the provider and prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
C) Place the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position.
D) Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a nonrebreather mask.
E) Cover the protruding cord with warm, sterile saline-soaked gauze.
, 4
Correct Answer: A) Perform a vaginal exam and apply upward pressure to the fetal
presenting part.
Rationale: In the event of a cord prolapse, the immediate priority is to relieve pressure on
the umbilical cord to maintain fetal oxygenation. The nurse should insert two gloved
fingers into the vagina and apply upward pressure against the presenting part to lift it off
the cord. This position must be maintained until the delivery (usually a C-section) occurs.
Positioning and oxygen are also important, but physical relief of the compression is the
very first step.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A) Apgar score of 9 at 5 minutes
B) Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
C) Generalized petechiae over the trunk
D) Overlapping of the cranial sutures
E) Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct Answer: C) Generalized petechiae over the trunk
Rationale: Generalized petechiae can indicate a clotting factor deficiency, infection, or low
platelet count in a newborn and must be reported. Acrocyanosis (bluish hands/feet) is a
normal finding in the first 24-48 hours. Overlapping sutures (molding) and a respiratory
rate between 30-60/min are expected neonatal findings.
Question 10
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Rho(D) immune globulin. Which of
the following information should the nurse include?
A) "This medication is given to Rh-positive mothers to protect the baby."
B) "This medication prevents the formation of antibodies in Rh-negative mothers."
C) "You will only need this medication once during your lifetime."
D) "This medication is administered orally after delivery."
E) "The medication is given if both the mother and baby are Rh-negative."
Correct Answer: B) "This medication prevents the formation of antibodies in Rh-negative
mothers."
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers who may be
carrying an Rh-positive fetus. It prevents the mother's immune system from reacting to the
fetal blood and developing antibodies that could attack future pregnancies. It is typically
given at 28 weeks of gestation and again within 72 hours of delivery if the baby is found to
be Rh-positive.
Question 11
A nurse is monitoring a client in labor who has an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a fetal
