EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam Prep – Correctly
Answers Questions with Rationales
Chamberlain
|GRADED A+| (EXAM READY)
(Solved) SCORE A
What finding should the practical nurse (PN) report to the nurse concerning possible abuse of a child?
A. A 4 month old infant with fever that can't be consoled
B. A toddler who cries when the father enters the room
C. An adolescent who refuses to speak to a parent
A+ TEST BANK 1
, EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
D. A 3 year old who begins bed-wetting during hospitalization –
Correct Answer :B. A toddler who cries when the father enters the room
rationale:
Since toddlers usually struggle with stranger anxiety and welcome the presence of a parent, the PN
should report a toddler who begins to cry when the father enters the room (B), which may indicate
fear related to possible abuse. (A) is a common finding that is consistent with fever in an infant.
Adolescents commonly struggle with independence and dependency, a development task, which may
be characterized by refusal to speak to a parent (C). The stress of hospitalization can cause a
previously toilet-trained child to wet the bed, especially at night (D).
A client arrives at the urgent care clinic with complaints of pounding heart and feeling out of breath.
The client takes lorazepram (Ativan) 1 mg PO twice daily as needed for panic attacks. What action is
most important for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
A. Ask the client when the last dose of Ativan was taken
B. Encourage the use of relaxation breathing techniques
C. Attach electrocardiographic electrodes to the client's chest
D. Determine the client's activity when the symptoms began –
Correct Answer :C. Attach electrocardiographic electrodes to the client's chest
rationale:
A client with dyspnea and heart palpitations, even with a history of panic attacks, should be assessed
for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The most important action for acute chest pain or symptoms of
ACS is to obtain electrocardiographic changes, so the PN should attach the electrodes to the client's
chest (C). (A,B, and D) should be implemented after (C)
Which drug is commonly prescribed for a client with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
A+ TEST BANK 2
, EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
B. Impiramine (Tofranil)
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) –
Correct Answer :D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
rationale:
A central nervous system stimulant, such as Ritalin (D), provides effective treatment for clients with
ADHD. (A, B, and C) are not used with ADHD
A male client is admitted to a drug rehabilitation program for chronic cocaine abuse. Which nursing
problem should the practical nurse consider is the client's highest priority?
A. Risk for noncompliance related to chronic drug use
B. Risk for self-violence related to suicidal depression
C. Sensory perceptual alternation related to stimulant drug use
D. Risk for other directed violence related to underlying personality disorder –
Correct Answer :B. Risk for self-violence related to suicidal depression
rationale:
Withdrawal of cocaine, a stimulant, results in lethargy and severe depression and can be accompanied
by suicidal ideation, so risk for self-violence (B) is the priority. Although addressing the client's
noncompliance (A) during the initial detoxification period could trigger an against medical advice
(AMA) discharge, risk for suicidal actions are the priority. Psychotic features, including sensory
perceptual alternations (C) and violent behaviors (D) should be addressed, but the client risk for self-
directed life-threatening behavior is the higher priority
A client with a long history of alcoholism is admitted with pneumonia and begins to manifest fine
tremors, tachycardia, hypertension, and confusion. Which additional finding is most important for the
practical nurse (PN) to report immediately?
A. Tactile hallucinations
A+ TEST BANK 3
, EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
B. Amnesia with short term memory loss
C. Confabulation and word substitution
D. Ataxia and nystagmus –
Correct Answer :A. Tactile hallucinations
rationale:
Delirium tremens (DTs) is a serious, potentially fatal side effect of alcohol withdrawal, often causing
alcoholic hallucinosis (false sensory perceptions), which stimulate the sympathetic nervous system
(SNS) and contribute to cardiovascular changes. The PN should report the client is having tactile
hallucinations (A), which cause significant discomfort, anxiety, and fear, and require medications to
reduce SNS stimulation. Although signs of Korsakoff's Wernicke's encephalopathy (B, C, and D) should
be reported, these are irreversible alcoholic dementias related to chronic alcohol abuse that don't
respond to benzodiazepines used in alcohol detoxification.
A client was admitted with major depressive disorder 3 weeks ago and received a prescription for
sertraline (Zoloft) on admission. Today the client self-reports feeling great. It is most important for the
practical nurse (PN) to consider which information when implementing care for this client?
A. The relationship between the depth of depression and suicide ideation exists
B. The client may be at increased risk for suicide as the depression lifts
C. The mediation takes 2 weeks to be effective, so the treatment is working well
D. The client is improving, so discharge planning should be considered –
Correct Answer :B. The client may be at increased risk for suicide as the depression lifts
rationale:
Severely depressed clients may have suicidal ideation, but lack the cognitive ability to plan an attempt
and the energy to implement a plan. As depression lifts, the client may be better able to plan a suicide
attempt and may have sufficient energy to carry out a plan, so (B) is the most important
consideration. (A,B, and C) are accurate considerations, but for this client (B) is the most important
A+ TEST BANK 4
EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam Prep – Correctly
Answers Questions with Rationales
Chamberlain
|GRADED A+| (EXAM READY)
(Solved) SCORE A
What finding should the practical nurse (PN) report to the nurse concerning possible abuse of a child?
A. A 4 month old infant with fever that can't be consoled
B. A toddler who cries when the father enters the room
C. An adolescent who refuses to speak to a parent
A+ TEST BANK 1
, EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
D. A 3 year old who begins bed-wetting during hospitalization –
Correct Answer :B. A toddler who cries when the father enters the room
rationale:
Since toddlers usually struggle with stranger anxiety and welcome the presence of a parent, the PN
should report a toddler who begins to cry when the father enters the room (B), which may indicate
fear related to possible abuse. (A) is a common finding that is consistent with fever in an infant.
Adolescents commonly struggle with independence and dependency, a development task, which may
be characterized by refusal to speak to a parent (C). The stress of hospitalization can cause a
previously toilet-trained child to wet the bed, especially at night (D).
A client arrives at the urgent care clinic with complaints of pounding heart and feeling out of breath.
The client takes lorazepram (Ativan) 1 mg PO twice daily as needed for panic attacks. What action is
most important for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
A. Ask the client when the last dose of Ativan was taken
B. Encourage the use of relaxation breathing techniques
C. Attach electrocardiographic electrodes to the client's chest
D. Determine the client's activity when the symptoms began –
Correct Answer :C. Attach electrocardiographic electrodes to the client's chest
rationale:
A client with dyspnea and heart palpitations, even with a history of panic attacks, should be assessed
for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The most important action for acute chest pain or symptoms of
ACS is to obtain electrocardiographic changes, so the PN should attach the electrodes to the client's
chest (C). (A,B, and D) should be implemented after (C)
Which drug is commonly prescribed for a client with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
A+ TEST BANK 2
, EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
B. Impiramine (Tofranil)
C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) –
Correct Answer :D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
rationale:
A central nervous system stimulant, such as Ritalin (D), provides effective treatment for clients with
ADHD. (A, B, and C) are not used with ADHD
A male client is admitted to a drug rehabilitation program for chronic cocaine abuse. Which nursing
problem should the practical nurse consider is the client's highest priority?
A. Risk for noncompliance related to chronic drug use
B. Risk for self-violence related to suicidal depression
C. Sensory perceptual alternation related to stimulant drug use
D. Risk for other directed violence related to underlying personality disorder –
Correct Answer :B. Risk for self-violence related to suicidal depression
rationale:
Withdrawal of cocaine, a stimulant, results in lethargy and severe depression and can be accompanied
by suicidal ideation, so risk for self-violence (B) is the priority. Although addressing the client's
noncompliance (A) during the initial detoxification period could trigger an against medical advice
(AMA) discharge, risk for suicidal actions are the priority. Psychotic features, including sensory
perceptual alternations (C) and violent behaviors (D) should be addressed, but the client risk for self-
directed life-threatening behavior is the higher priority
A client with a long history of alcoholism is admitted with pneumonia and begins to manifest fine
tremors, tachycardia, hypertension, and confusion. Which additional finding is most important for the
practical nurse (PN) to report immediately?
A. Tactile hallucinations
A+ TEST BANK 3
, EAQ HESI Mental Health Exam
B. Amnesia with short term memory loss
C. Confabulation and word substitution
D. Ataxia and nystagmus –
Correct Answer :A. Tactile hallucinations
rationale:
Delirium tremens (DTs) is a serious, potentially fatal side effect of alcohol withdrawal, often causing
alcoholic hallucinosis (false sensory perceptions), which stimulate the sympathetic nervous system
(SNS) and contribute to cardiovascular changes. The PN should report the client is having tactile
hallucinations (A), which cause significant discomfort, anxiety, and fear, and require medications to
reduce SNS stimulation. Although signs of Korsakoff's Wernicke's encephalopathy (B, C, and D) should
be reported, these are irreversible alcoholic dementias related to chronic alcohol abuse that don't
respond to benzodiazepines used in alcohol detoxification.
A client was admitted with major depressive disorder 3 weeks ago and received a prescription for
sertraline (Zoloft) on admission. Today the client self-reports feeling great. It is most important for the
practical nurse (PN) to consider which information when implementing care for this client?
A. The relationship between the depth of depression and suicide ideation exists
B. The client may be at increased risk for suicide as the depression lifts
C. The mediation takes 2 weeks to be effective, so the treatment is working well
D. The client is improving, so discharge planning should be considered –
Correct Answer :B. The client may be at increased risk for suicide as the depression lifts
rationale:
Severely depressed clients may have suicidal ideation, but lack the cognitive ability to plan an attempt
and the energy to implement a plan. As depression lifts, the client may be better able to plan a suicide
attempt and may have sufficient energy to carry out a plan, so (B) is the most important
consideration. (A,B, and C) are accurate considerations, but for this client (B) is the most important
A+ TEST BANK 4
