ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor –
Mock Exam ATI PN Comprehensive
Predictor 2026 Exit with NGN 200
Real Questions and 100% Correct
Answers to Pass 2026 PN ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam.
1.
A nurse is assessing a client with dehydration. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Urine output 30 mL/hr
C. Heart rate 124 bpm
D. Mild thirst
Answer: C. Heart rate 124 bpm
Rationale: Tachycardia indicates compensatory cardiovascular response to fluid volume deficit
and possible hypovolemia progression.
2.
A client has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. What is the priority action?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
,C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Give potassium supplement
Answer: B. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
Rationale: Hyperkalemia can cause lethal dysrhythmias; cardiac monitoring is the immediate
priority.
3. (Case Scenario)
A client post-op day 1 reports sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety. SpO₂ is 88%.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage deep breathing
B. Apply oxygen
C. Obtain vital signs
D. Administer pain medication
Answer: B. Apply oxygen
Rationale: Acute hypoxia requires immediate oxygenation before further assessment or
interventions.
4.
Which medication requires monitoring for ototoxicity?
A. Furosemide
B. Metformin
C. Lisinopril
D. Omeprazole
Answer: A. Furosemide
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause ototoxicity, especially with rapid IV administration.
5.
,A nurse is teaching about infection control. Which isolation is required for tuberculosis?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Protective
Answer: C. Airborne
Rationale: TB spreads via airborne particles requiring N95 respirator precautions.
6.
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Post-op appendectomy with pain 6/10
B. COPD client with oxygen saturation 89%
C. Diabetic client with glucose 180 mg/dL
D. Hypertensive client BP 150/90
Answer: B. COPD client with oxygen saturation 89%
Rationale: Hypoxemia is life-threatening and takes priority.
7.
A client is receiving heparin. Which lab result is most important?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin A1C
Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: aPTT monitors therapeutic effect of heparin.
8.
, Which sign indicates lithium toxicity?
A. Hypothermia
B. Coarse tremors
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Answer: B. Coarse tremors
Rationale: Tremors, confusion, and ataxia indicate lithium toxicity.
9.
A newborn is found to have a heart rate of 90 bpm. What is the nurse’s action?
A. Stimulate and reassess
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Call provider immediately
D. Document as normal
Answer: A. Stimulate and reassess
Rationale: Neonatal HR <100 requires stimulation first.
10.
Which diet is appropriate for a client with heart failure?
A. High sodium
B. Low sodium
C. High potassium
D. High protein
Answer: B. Low sodium
Rationale: Sodium restriction reduces fluid retention.
CASE SCENARIO 2
Mock Exam ATI PN Comprehensive
Predictor 2026 Exit with NGN 200
Real Questions and 100% Correct
Answers to Pass 2026 PN ATI
Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam.
1.
A nurse is assessing a client with dehydration. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Urine output 30 mL/hr
C. Heart rate 124 bpm
D. Mild thirst
Answer: C. Heart rate 124 bpm
Rationale: Tachycardia indicates compensatory cardiovascular response to fluid volume deficit
and possible hypovolemia progression.
2.
A client has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. What is the priority action?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
,C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Give potassium supplement
Answer: B. Place the client on a cardiac monitor
Rationale: Hyperkalemia can cause lethal dysrhythmias; cardiac monitoring is the immediate
priority.
3. (Case Scenario)
A client post-op day 1 reports sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety. SpO₂ is 88%.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage deep breathing
B. Apply oxygen
C. Obtain vital signs
D. Administer pain medication
Answer: B. Apply oxygen
Rationale: Acute hypoxia requires immediate oxygenation before further assessment or
interventions.
4.
Which medication requires monitoring for ototoxicity?
A. Furosemide
B. Metformin
C. Lisinopril
D. Omeprazole
Answer: A. Furosemide
Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause ototoxicity, especially with rapid IV administration.
5.
,A nurse is teaching about infection control. Which isolation is required for tuberculosis?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Protective
Answer: C. Airborne
Rationale: TB spreads via airborne particles requiring N95 respirator precautions.
6.
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Post-op appendectomy with pain 6/10
B. COPD client with oxygen saturation 89%
C. Diabetic client with glucose 180 mg/dL
D. Hypertensive client BP 150/90
Answer: B. COPD client with oxygen saturation 89%
Rationale: Hypoxemia is life-threatening and takes priority.
7.
A client is receiving heparin. Which lab result is most important?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin A1C
Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: aPTT monitors therapeutic effect of heparin.
8.
, Which sign indicates lithium toxicity?
A. Hypothermia
B. Coarse tremors
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
Answer: B. Coarse tremors
Rationale: Tremors, confusion, and ataxia indicate lithium toxicity.
9.
A newborn is found to have a heart rate of 90 bpm. What is the nurse’s action?
A. Stimulate and reassess
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Call provider immediately
D. Document as normal
Answer: A. Stimulate and reassess
Rationale: Neonatal HR <100 requires stimulation first.
10.
Which diet is appropriate for a client with heart failure?
A. High sodium
B. Low sodium
C. High potassium
D. High protein
Answer: B. Low sodium
Rationale: Sodium restriction reduces fluid retention.
CASE SCENARIO 2
