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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam Preparation Newest
Exam 2026-2027 With Complete Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers With Rationales | Brand New Version |
Already A+ Graded
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
assessment finding should cause the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the
provider?
A. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate of 20/min
C. Apical pulse of 52/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
Answer: C. Apical pulse of 52/min
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An apical pulse below 60 beats/min is generally
considered a contraindication for administration because it may indicate digoxin toxicity or
increased sensitivity to the medication. The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the
provider before administration.
2. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking furosemide?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of potassium, sodium, and
water. Hypokalemia is a common and potentially dangerous adverse effect that can lead to
muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
3. A client taking warfarin should be instructed to avoid excessive intake of which food?
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A. Apples
B. Bananas
C. Spinach
D. Chicken
Answer: C. Spinach
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can reduce the effectiveness of warfarin by
promoting clotting factor synthesis. Clients should maintain consistent vitamin K intake to
prevent fluctuations in anticoagulation.
4. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely for a client receiving heparin
therapy?
A. Hemoglobin A1C
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Creatinine kinase
D. Troponin level
Answer: B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the aPTT because it measures the effectiveness of
the intrinsic clotting pathway. Elevated values may indicate an increased risk of bleeding.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin tablets for angina. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the tablet with water immediately.
B. Store the tablets in a clear plastic container.
C. Take one tablet every day regardless of chest pain.
D. Place the tablet under the tongue at the onset of chest pain.
Answer: D. Place the tablet under the tongue at the onset of chest pain.
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is rapidly absorbed through the mucosa under the tongue
and is used to relieve acute angina attacks. Tablets should remain in their original dark
container to protect potency.
6. Which medication classification does metoprolol belong to?
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Beta blocker
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C. ACE inhibitor
D. Diuretic
Answer: B. Beta blocker
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker used to decrease heart rate, blood pressure,
and cardiac workload. It is commonly prescribed for hypertension, angina, and heart failure.
7. A client taking lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the nurse’s best
response?
A. “This is a common side effect of the medication.”
B. “Increase your fluid intake immediately.”
C. “Stop taking the medication today.”
D. “You are experiencing an allergic reaction.”
Answer: A. “This is a common side effect of the medication.”
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to
increased bradykinin levels. The provider may choose an alternative medication if the cough
becomes bothersome.
8. Which statement by a client taking insulin indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will rotate my injection sites.”
B. “I should take insulin even if I am sick.”
C. “I can skip meals after taking rapid-acting insulin.”
D. “I should monitor my blood glucose regularly.”
Answer: C. “I can skip meals after taking rapid-acting insulin.”
Rationale: Clients should not skip meals after taking rapid-acting insulin because hypoglycemia
can occur rapidly. Consistent carbohydrate intake is essential after insulin administration.
9. Which symptom is most indicative of hypoglycemia?
A. Fruity breath odor
B. Polyuria
C. Diaphoresis
D. Slow wound healing
Answer: C. Diaphoresis
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam Preparation Newest
Exam 2026-2027 With Complete Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers With Rationales | Brand New Version |
Already A+ Graded
1. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which
assessment finding should cause the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the
provider?
A. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
B. Respiratory rate of 20/min
C. Apical pulse of 52/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 96%
Answer: C. Apical pulse of 52/min
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An apical pulse below 60 beats/min is generally
considered a contraindication for administration because it may indicate digoxin toxicity or
increased sensitivity to the medication. The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the
provider before administration.
2. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking furosemide?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of potassium, sodium, and
water. Hypokalemia is a common and potentially dangerous adverse effect that can lead to
muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
3. A client taking warfarin should be instructed to avoid excessive intake of which food?
,2|Page
A. Apples
B. Bananas
C. Spinach
D. Chicken
Answer: C. Spinach
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can reduce the effectiveness of warfarin by
promoting clotting factor synthesis. Clients should maintain consistent vitamin K intake to
prevent fluctuations in anticoagulation.
4. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely for a client receiving heparin
therapy?
A. Hemoglobin A1C
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Creatinine kinase
D. Troponin level
Answer: B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the aPTT because it measures the effectiveness of
the intrinsic clotting pathway. Elevated values may indicate an increased risk of bleeding.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin tablets for angina. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the tablet with water immediately.
B. Store the tablets in a clear plastic container.
C. Take one tablet every day regardless of chest pain.
D. Place the tablet under the tongue at the onset of chest pain.
Answer: D. Place the tablet under the tongue at the onset of chest pain.
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is rapidly absorbed through the mucosa under the tongue
and is used to relieve acute angina attacks. Tablets should remain in their original dark
container to protect potency.
6. Which medication classification does metoprolol belong to?
A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Beta blocker
, 3|Page
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Diuretic
Answer: B. Beta blocker
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker used to decrease heart rate, blood pressure,
and cardiac workload. It is commonly prescribed for hypertension, angina, and heart failure.
7. A client taking lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the nurse’s best
response?
A. “This is a common side effect of the medication.”
B. “Increase your fluid intake immediately.”
C. “Stop taking the medication today.”
D. “You are experiencing an allergic reaction.”
Answer: A. “This is a common side effect of the medication.”
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to
increased bradykinin levels. The provider may choose an alternative medication if the cough
becomes bothersome.
8. Which statement by a client taking insulin indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will rotate my injection sites.”
B. “I should take insulin even if I am sick.”
C. “I can skip meals after taking rapid-acting insulin.”
D. “I should monitor my blood glucose regularly.”
Answer: C. “I can skip meals after taking rapid-acting insulin.”
Rationale: Clients should not skip meals after taking rapid-acting insulin because hypoglycemia
can occur rapidly. Consistent carbohydrate intake is essential after insulin administration.
9. Which symptom is most indicative of hypoglycemia?
A. Fruity breath odor
B. Polyuria
C. Diaphoresis
D. Slow wound healing
Answer: C. Diaphoresis
