KAPLAN PHARMACOLGY B PRACTICE TEST 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |STUDY GUIDE| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics Principles
Cardiovascular and Hematologic Pharmacotherapy
Anti-infectives and Antimicrobial Agents
Neurological and Psychiatric Pharmacology
Endocrine and Metabolic Drug Therapy
Medication Safety and Regulatory Compliance
Ethics and Professional Nursing Standards
Patient Education and Clinical Decision-Making
This practice assessment is designed to evaluate competency in pharmacology essential for nursing practice. The exam assesses knowledge across
foundational theory, applied professional skills, regulatory and legal compliance, ethics, and real-world clinical decision-making. It consists of
100 multiple-choice questions, including scenario-based items that emphasize critical thinking and real-world application. Candidates will
demonstrate their ability to select appropriate medications, recognize adverse effects, calculate dosages, educate patients, and adhere to safety
standards. The test mirrors the structure and rigor of professional licensing examinations, preparing students for successful performance in
clinical settings and certification tests.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
Question 1
A nurse is administering digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Before administration, the nurse checks the patient's heart rate and finds it to be 52
beats per minute. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Administer the dose and monitor closely
B. Administer the dose and notify the physician
C. Hold the dose and notify the physician
D. Double the dose to compensate for low heart rate
,🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause bradycardia. The standard guideline is to hold the dose if the heart rate is
below 60 beats per minute in adults and notify the physician for further evaluation.
Question 2
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in treating hypertension?
A. Increasing cardiac output
B. Blocking sympathetic stimulation of the heart
C. Increasing renin release
D. Direct vasodilation of peripheral arteries
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Beta-blockers work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which inhibits sympathetic stimulation of the heart, reducing heart rate
and cardiac output, thereby lowering blood pressure.
Question 3
A patient is prescribed warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory test must the nurse monitor regularly?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
C. Complete blood count
D. Liver function tests
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the coagulation cascade. PT and INR are the standard tests to monitor warfarin efficacy
and prevent bleeding complications.
Question 4
Which drug class is most commonly associated with the development of torsades de pointes?
,A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Class III antiarrhythmics (e.g., amiodarone, sotalol)
D. Calcium channel blockers
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Class III antiarrhythmics prolong the QT interval, which can lead to torsades de pointes, a life-threatening ventricular tachycardia.
Question 5
A patient taking lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the most likely cause?
A. Allergic reaction to the medication
B. ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema
C. ACE inhibitor-induced cough due to increased angiotensin II
D. ACE inhibitor-induced cough due to increased bradykinin
🟢 Correct answer: D
🔴 RATIONALE: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to accumulation that causes a dry cough in approximately 10-20% of
patients.
Question 6
Which of the following is the first-line medication for treating acute status epilepticus?
A. Phenytoin
B. Lorazepam
C. Gabapentin
D. Valproic acid
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are the first-line treatment for acute status epilepticus due to their rapid onset and effectiveness in
stopping seizure activity.
, Question 7
A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which adverse effect requires immediate medical attention?
A. Nausea
B. Metallic taste
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Diarrhea
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Lactic acidosis is a rare but life-threatening complication of metformin, requiring immediate discontinuation and medical
intervention.
Question 8
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in patients with a history of severe penicillin allergy?
A. Cephalexin
B. Azithromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Vancomycin
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 RATIONALE: Cephalosporins like cephalexin share a similar beta-lactam ring structure with penicillins, posing a risk of cross-reactivity in
patients with severe penicillin allergy.
Question 9
A nurse is administering insulin to a patient. Which route is the correct method for insulin administration?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Intradermal
🟢 Correct answer: B
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |STUDY GUIDE| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics Principles
Cardiovascular and Hematologic Pharmacotherapy
Anti-infectives and Antimicrobial Agents
Neurological and Psychiatric Pharmacology
Endocrine and Metabolic Drug Therapy
Medication Safety and Regulatory Compliance
Ethics and Professional Nursing Standards
Patient Education and Clinical Decision-Making
This practice assessment is designed to evaluate competency in pharmacology essential for nursing practice. The exam assesses knowledge across
foundational theory, applied professional skills, regulatory and legal compliance, ethics, and real-world clinical decision-making. It consists of
100 multiple-choice questions, including scenario-based items that emphasize critical thinking and real-world application. Candidates will
demonstrate their ability to select appropriate medications, recognize adverse effects, calculate dosages, educate patients, and adhere to safety
standards. The test mirrors the structure and rigor of professional licensing examinations, preparing students for successful performance in
clinical settings and certification tests.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
Question 1
A nurse is administering digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Before administration, the nurse checks the patient's heart rate and finds it to be 52
beats per minute. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Administer the dose and monitor closely
B. Administer the dose and notify the physician
C. Hold the dose and notify the physician
D. Double the dose to compensate for low heart rate
,🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause bradycardia. The standard guideline is to hold the dose if the heart rate is
below 60 beats per minute in adults and notify the physician for further evaluation.
Question 2
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in treating hypertension?
A. Increasing cardiac output
B. Blocking sympathetic stimulation of the heart
C. Increasing renin release
D. Direct vasodilation of peripheral arteries
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Beta-blockers work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which inhibits sympathetic stimulation of the heart, reducing heart rate
and cardiac output, thereby lowering blood pressure.
Question 3
A patient is prescribed warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory test must the nurse monitor regularly?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
C. Complete blood count
D. Liver function tests
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the coagulation cascade. PT and INR are the standard tests to monitor warfarin efficacy
and prevent bleeding complications.
Question 4
Which drug class is most commonly associated with the development of torsades de pointes?
,A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Class III antiarrhythmics (e.g., amiodarone, sotalol)
D. Calcium channel blockers
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Class III antiarrhythmics prolong the QT interval, which can lead to torsades de pointes, a life-threatening ventricular tachycardia.
Question 5
A patient taking lisinopril reports a persistent dry cough. What is the most likely cause?
A. Allergic reaction to the medication
B. ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema
C. ACE inhibitor-induced cough due to increased angiotensin II
D. ACE inhibitor-induced cough due to increased bradykinin
🟢 Correct answer: D
🔴 RATIONALE: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to accumulation that causes a dry cough in approximately 10-20% of
patients.
Question 6
Which of the following is the first-line medication for treating acute status epilepticus?
A. Phenytoin
B. Lorazepam
C. Gabapentin
D. Valproic acid
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are the first-line treatment for acute status epilepticus due to their rapid onset and effectiveness in
stopping seizure activity.
, Question 7
A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which adverse effect requires immediate medical attention?
A. Nausea
B. Metallic taste
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Diarrhea
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 RATIONALE: Lactic acidosis is a rare but life-threatening complication of metformin, requiring immediate discontinuation and medical
intervention.
Question 8
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in patients with a history of severe penicillin allergy?
A. Cephalexin
B. Azithromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Vancomycin
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 RATIONALE: Cephalosporins like cephalexin share a similar beta-lactam ring structure with penicillins, posing a risk of cross-reactivity in
patients with severe penicillin allergy.
Question 9
A nurse is administering insulin to a patient. Which route is the correct method for insulin administration?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Intradermal
🟢 Correct answer: B
