KAPLAN FUNDAMENTALS A PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |STUDY GUIDE| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
- Nursing Process and Clinical Decision-Making
- Safety and Infection Control
- Ethics, Legal Issues, and Professional Standards
- Assessment and Vital Signs Measurement
- Pharmacology and Medication Administration
- Nutrition, Diet Therapy, and Hydration
- Wound Care, Pain Management, and Comfort
- Mobility, Positioning, and Body Mechanics
- Communication and Documentation
- Health Promotion and Patient Education
This practice test is designed to prepare nursing students and professionals for the Kaplan Fundamentals A examination, which assesses
foundational knowledge essential for safe and effective nursing practice. The exam evaluates critical competencies including clinical assessment
skills, medication administration proficiency, infection control protocols, ethical decision-making, and real-world patient care scenarios. The
multiple-choice format includes both direct knowledge questions and scenario-based items that require critical thinking and prioritization
abilities. Emphasis is placed on applying theoretical knowledge to practical clinical situations, demonstrating professional standards, and making
sound decisions that prioritize patient safety and outcomes. Successful performance indicates readiness for clinical practice and adherence to
regulatory compliance requirements.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to ambulate a patient who had a total hip arthroplasty 2 days ago. Before ambulation, what should the nurse assess first?
A. Patient's pain level and medication administration time
B. Activity tolerance, strength, mobility status, and mental status
C. Availability of family members to assist during ambulation
D. Type of footwear the patient wore the previous day
🟢 Correct answer: B
,🔴 Explanation: Before ambulation, the nurse must assess activity tolerance of the patient, strength, mobility status, mental status, degree of
personnel and equipment assistance needed, and safety of the environment including adequacy of clothing with nonslip shoes.
Question 2
Which disease requires airborne precautions in a healthcare setting?
A. Streptococcal pneumonia
B. Tuberculosis
C. Influenza
D. Candida infection
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Airborne precautions are used for pathogens transmitted by the airborne route that are less than 5 microns and remain suspended
in the air. Diseases requiring airborne precautions include measles, varicella, tuberculosis, and shingles until lesions are crusted over.
Question 3
A patient is requesting informed consent for a bone marrow biopsy. What must be explained before giving informed consent?
A. Only the benefits of the procedure
B. Explanation of risks, benefits, expectations, and alternatives to the procedure
C. The cost of the procedure and insurance coverage
D. The physician's qualifications and experience
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Informed consent requires explanation of risks, benefits, expectations, and alternatives to the procedure. The patient can withdraw
consent at any time, and informed consent is required for bone marrow biopsy.
Question 4
What is the primary cause of a falsely elevated blood pressure reading?
,A. Cuff is too wide
B. Cuff is too narrow
C. Patient's arm is above heart level
D. Cuff deflated too quickly
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: A cuff that is too narrow is the primary cause of falsely elevated blood pressure readings. The bladder width should be
approximately 40% of the arm circumference between the olecranon and acromion.
Question 5
Which position is most appropriate for a patient receiving gastric feedings to reduce regurgitation and risk of aspiration?
A. Low Fowler's (15-30 degrees)
B. Semi Fowler's (30-45 degrees)
C. Prone position
D. Supine position
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Semi Fowler's position (30-45 degrees) promotes lung expansion especially with ventilator and is used when patients receive gastric
feedings to reduce regurgitation and risk of aspiration.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with an open wound. What is the most effective way to promote healing?
A. Keep the wound dry and exposed to air
B. Keep it moist, clean, and free from debris
C. Apply tight pressure dressing constantly
D. Clean with alcohol daily
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: To promote healing with any wound, keep it moist, clean, and free from debris. Sterile procedure is required for fresh wounds or
open wounds.
, Question 7
Which type of diet includes gelatin, popsicles, tea, ginger ale, and fruit juice without pulp?
A. Full liquid diet
B. Soft diet
C. Clear liquid diet
D. Low-residue diet
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Clear liquid diet includes gelatin, popsicles, tea, ginger ale, fruit juice without pulp, and bouillon. Milk and juice with pulp are
prohibited. This diet is used for surgical clients, those with acute vomiting or diarrhea, to empty GI tract and prevent aspiration.
Question 8
When should anti-embolism stockings be put on?
A. After the patient gets out of bed
B. In the morning before the patient gets out of bed
C. Only when the patient experiences leg pain
D. At bedtime
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Anti-embolism stockings should be put on in the morning before the patient gets out of bed. They should not be applied if skin
lesions or gangrene are present.
Question 9
What does the T wave on an EKG represent?
A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Electrical recovery or ventricle repolarization
C. Passage through AV node
D. Atrial depolarization
🟢 Correct answer: B
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |STUDY GUIDE| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
- Nursing Process and Clinical Decision-Making
- Safety and Infection Control
- Ethics, Legal Issues, and Professional Standards
- Assessment and Vital Signs Measurement
- Pharmacology and Medication Administration
- Nutrition, Diet Therapy, and Hydration
- Wound Care, Pain Management, and Comfort
- Mobility, Positioning, and Body Mechanics
- Communication and Documentation
- Health Promotion and Patient Education
This practice test is designed to prepare nursing students and professionals for the Kaplan Fundamentals A examination, which assesses
foundational knowledge essential for safe and effective nursing practice. The exam evaluates critical competencies including clinical assessment
skills, medication administration proficiency, infection control protocols, ethical decision-making, and real-world patient care scenarios. The
multiple-choice format includes both direct knowledge questions and scenario-based items that require critical thinking and prioritization
abilities. Emphasis is placed on applying theoretical knowledge to practical clinical situations, demonstrating professional standards, and making
sound decisions that prioritize patient safety and outcomes. Successful performance indicates readiness for clinical practice and adherence to
regulatory compliance requirements.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to ambulate a patient who had a total hip arthroplasty 2 days ago. Before ambulation, what should the nurse assess first?
A. Patient's pain level and medication administration time
B. Activity tolerance, strength, mobility status, and mental status
C. Availability of family members to assist during ambulation
D. Type of footwear the patient wore the previous day
🟢 Correct answer: B
,🔴 Explanation: Before ambulation, the nurse must assess activity tolerance of the patient, strength, mobility status, mental status, degree of
personnel and equipment assistance needed, and safety of the environment including adequacy of clothing with nonslip shoes.
Question 2
Which disease requires airborne precautions in a healthcare setting?
A. Streptococcal pneumonia
B. Tuberculosis
C. Influenza
D. Candida infection
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Airborne precautions are used for pathogens transmitted by the airborne route that are less than 5 microns and remain suspended
in the air. Diseases requiring airborne precautions include measles, varicella, tuberculosis, and shingles until lesions are crusted over.
Question 3
A patient is requesting informed consent for a bone marrow biopsy. What must be explained before giving informed consent?
A. Only the benefits of the procedure
B. Explanation of risks, benefits, expectations, and alternatives to the procedure
C. The cost of the procedure and insurance coverage
D. The physician's qualifications and experience
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Informed consent requires explanation of risks, benefits, expectations, and alternatives to the procedure. The patient can withdraw
consent at any time, and informed consent is required for bone marrow biopsy.
Question 4
What is the primary cause of a falsely elevated blood pressure reading?
,A. Cuff is too wide
B. Cuff is too narrow
C. Patient's arm is above heart level
D. Cuff deflated too quickly
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: A cuff that is too narrow is the primary cause of falsely elevated blood pressure readings. The bladder width should be
approximately 40% of the arm circumference between the olecranon and acromion.
Question 5
Which position is most appropriate for a patient receiving gastric feedings to reduce regurgitation and risk of aspiration?
A. Low Fowler's (15-30 degrees)
B. Semi Fowler's (30-45 degrees)
C. Prone position
D. Supine position
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Semi Fowler's position (30-45 degrees) promotes lung expansion especially with ventilator and is used when patients receive gastric
feedings to reduce regurgitation and risk of aspiration.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a patient with an open wound. What is the most effective way to promote healing?
A. Keep the wound dry and exposed to air
B. Keep it moist, clean, and free from debris
C. Apply tight pressure dressing constantly
D. Clean with alcohol daily
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: To promote healing with any wound, keep it moist, clean, and free from debris. Sterile procedure is required for fresh wounds or
open wounds.
, Question 7
Which type of diet includes gelatin, popsicles, tea, ginger ale, and fruit juice without pulp?
A. Full liquid diet
B. Soft diet
C. Clear liquid diet
D. Low-residue diet
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Clear liquid diet includes gelatin, popsicles, tea, ginger ale, fruit juice without pulp, and bouillon. Milk and juice with pulp are
prohibited. This diet is used for surgical clients, those with acute vomiting or diarrhea, to empty GI tract and prevent aspiration.
Question 8
When should anti-embolism stockings be put on?
A. After the patient gets out of bed
B. In the morning before the patient gets out of bed
C. Only when the patient experiences leg pain
D. At bedtime
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Anti-embolism stockings should be put on in the morning before the patient gets out of bed. They should not be applied if skin
lesions or gangrene are present.
Question 9
What does the T wave on an EKG represent?
A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Electrical recovery or ventricle repolarization
C. Passage through AV node
D. Atrial depolarization
🟢 Correct answer: B
