UCLA-LAW-110 CONTRACTS EXAM COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR 2026 Q&A
1. Which of the following constitutes a valid offer under common law contract
principles?
A. A price tag displayed on merchandise in a retail store
B. An advertisement stating "First come, first served" with specific quantity and
price
C. A circular announcing a general sale of goods without specifying quantity
D. An auctioneer's call for bids at an auction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An advertisement can constitute a valid offer if it is definite,
explicit, and leaves nothing open for negotiation, particularly when it specifies
quantity and uses language like "first come, first served" indicating acceptance
through performance. Price tags (A) are invitations to treat, general
advertisements (C) lack specificity, and an auctioneer's call for bids (D) is an
invitation for offers, not an offer itself.
2. A merchant sends a written confirmation of a contract to another merchant
within a reasonable time after an oral agreement. The receiving merchant does
not object within 10 days. Under UCC § 2-201, what is the effect?
A. The contract is unenforceable because it was oral
B. The contract is enforceable against the receiving merchant
C. The contract is enforceable only against the sending merchant
D. The contract is enforceable only for goods already delivered
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Under UCC § 2-201(2), between merchants, a written
confirmation received within reasonable time satisfies the Statute of Frauds
against the recipient unless they object in writing within 10 days. This is the
"merchant's exception" to the Statute of Frauds.
3. Which doctrine would most likely enforce a promise made without consideration
where the promisee reasonably relied on the promise to their detriment?
A. Res ipsa loquitur
B. Promissory estoppel
C. Quantum meruit
, D. Unjust enrichment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Promissory estoppel enforces promises without traditional
consideration when the promisee reasonably and foreseeably relies on the
promise to their detriment. Quantum meruit and unjust enrichment apply to
quasi-contracts, not promises. Res ipsa loquitur is a tort doctrine.
4. In a bilateral contract dispute, the offeree sends an acceptance by mail on
Tuesday, but the offeror sends a revocation that the offeree receives on
Wednesday. When is the contract formed?
A. When the offeror sends the revocation
B. When the offeree receives the revocation
C. When the offeree mails the acceptance
D. When the offeror receives the acceptance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Under the mailbox rule, acceptance is effective upon dispatch
(when mailed), while revocation is effective only upon receipt. Since the
acceptance was mailed before the revocation was received, a contract was
formed when the acceptance was mailed.
5. Which of the following is NOT a valid defense to contract enforcement?
A. Lack of capacity due to minority
B. Statute of frauds non-compliance
C. Mere economic hardship after contract formation
D. Duress by physical threat
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mere economic hardship after contract formation is not a defense
to enforcement. Contracts are generally binding even if they become
economically disadvantageous. Minority (A), Statute of Frauds (B), and duress
(D) are all recognized defenses.
6. Under UCC Article 2, what is the threshold amount above which the Statute of
Frauds requires a writing for sale of goods contracts?
A. $100
B. $300
C. $500
, D. $1,000
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: UCC § 2-201(1) requires a writing for contracts for the sale of
goods priced at $500 or more. This is the standard threshold under the Uniform
Commercial Code.
7. What is the primary difference between a condition precedent and a condition
subsequent?
A. Condition precedent must occur before performance is due; condition
subsequent terminates an existing duty
B. Condition precedent terminates a duty; condition subsequent must occur
before performance
C. There is no practical difference; the terms are interchangeable
D. Condition precedent applies only to UCC contracts; condition subsequent
applies only to common law
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A condition precedent must occur before a party's performance
obligation arises, while a condition subsequent terminates an already existing
duty to perform. This distinction affects when and how contractual obligations
are triggered or extinguished.
8. Which statement best describes the "parol evidence rule"?
A. Oral evidence is always admissible to prove contract terms
B. Written contracts cannot be modified after signing
C. Prior or contemporaneous oral/written agreements cannot contradict a final
integrated written contract
D. Only written evidence is admissible in contract disputes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The parol evidence rule prohibits introduction of prior or
contemporaneous agreements that contradict or add to a final, integrated
written contract. It does not prevent evidence of subsequent modifications,
fraud, mistake, or ambiguity.
9. A contractor promises to build a house for $200,000. After beginning work, the
owner promises to pay an additional $20,000 if the contractor completes on
time. The contractor completes on time but the owner refuses to pay the extra
, $20,000. Under the pre-existing duty rule, is the owner obligated to pay?
A. Yes, because the owner benefited from on-time completion
B. Yes, because on-time completion was unforeseen
C. No, because the contractor had a pre-existing duty to complete the work
D. No, unless the additional payment was in writing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Under the pre-existing duty rule, promising additional
compensation for performing an existing contractual duty lacks new
consideration and is generally unenforceable. Exceptions exist for unforeseen
difficulties or modified scope, but mere on-time completion of the original duty
doesn't qualify.
10. Which of the following best describes "mutual mistake" in contract law?
A. Both parties are mistaken about the same material fact existing at contract
formation
B. One party knows the other is mistaken and remains silent
C. Both parties make poor business judgments after contract formation
D. One party is mistaken, and the other party is unaware of the mistake
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mutual mistake occurs when both parties share a mistaken belief
about a material fact that existed at the time of contract formation, making
enforcement unconscionable. This differs from unilateral mistake (D) and poor
business judgment (C).
11. What is the measure of "expectation damages" in contract breach cases?
A. Out-of-pocket expenses incurred by the non-breaching party
B. The benefit of the bargain, putting the non-breaching party in the position they
would have been if the contract was performed
C. Punitive damages multiplied by two
D. Only direct damages, excluding consequential damages
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Expectation damages aim to put the non-breaching party in the
position they would have been in had the contract been fully performed—the
"benefit of the bargain". This differs from reliance damages (A) which restore
pre-contract position.
PREDICTOR 2026 Q&A
1. Which of the following constitutes a valid offer under common law contract
principles?
A. A price tag displayed on merchandise in a retail store
B. An advertisement stating "First come, first served" with specific quantity and
price
C. A circular announcing a general sale of goods without specifying quantity
D. An auctioneer's call for bids at an auction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An advertisement can constitute a valid offer if it is definite,
explicit, and leaves nothing open for negotiation, particularly when it specifies
quantity and uses language like "first come, first served" indicating acceptance
through performance. Price tags (A) are invitations to treat, general
advertisements (C) lack specificity, and an auctioneer's call for bids (D) is an
invitation for offers, not an offer itself.
2. A merchant sends a written confirmation of a contract to another merchant
within a reasonable time after an oral agreement. The receiving merchant does
not object within 10 days. Under UCC § 2-201, what is the effect?
A. The contract is unenforceable because it was oral
B. The contract is enforceable against the receiving merchant
C. The contract is enforceable only against the sending merchant
D. The contract is enforceable only for goods already delivered
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Under UCC § 2-201(2), between merchants, a written
confirmation received within reasonable time satisfies the Statute of Frauds
against the recipient unless they object in writing within 10 days. This is the
"merchant's exception" to the Statute of Frauds.
3. Which doctrine would most likely enforce a promise made without consideration
where the promisee reasonably relied on the promise to their detriment?
A. Res ipsa loquitur
B. Promissory estoppel
C. Quantum meruit
, D. Unjust enrichment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Promissory estoppel enforces promises without traditional
consideration when the promisee reasonably and foreseeably relies on the
promise to their detriment. Quantum meruit and unjust enrichment apply to
quasi-contracts, not promises. Res ipsa loquitur is a tort doctrine.
4. In a bilateral contract dispute, the offeree sends an acceptance by mail on
Tuesday, but the offeror sends a revocation that the offeree receives on
Wednesday. When is the contract formed?
A. When the offeror sends the revocation
B. When the offeree receives the revocation
C. When the offeree mails the acceptance
D. When the offeror receives the acceptance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Under the mailbox rule, acceptance is effective upon dispatch
(when mailed), while revocation is effective only upon receipt. Since the
acceptance was mailed before the revocation was received, a contract was
formed when the acceptance was mailed.
5. Which of the following is NOT a valid defense to contract enforcement?
A. Lack of capacity due to minority
B. Statute of frauds non-compliance
C. Mere economic hardship after contract formation
D. Duress by physical threat
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mere economic hardship after contract formation is not a defense
to enforcement. Contracts are generally binding even if they become
economically disadvantageous. Minority (A), Statute of Frauds (B), and duress
(D) are all recognized defenses.
6. Under UCC Article 2, what is the threshold amount above which the Statute of
Frauds requires a writing for sale of goods contracts?
A. $100
B. $300
C. $500
, D. $1,000
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: UCC § 2-201(1) requires a writing for contracts for the sale of
goods priced at $500 or more. This is the standard threshold under the Uniform
Commercial Code.
7. What is the primary difference between a condition precedent and a condition
subsequent?
A. Condition precedent must occur before performance is due; condition
subsequent terminates an existing duty
B. Condition precedent terminates a duty; condition subsequent must occur
before performance
C. There is no practical difference; the terms are interchangeable
D. Condition precedent applies only to UCC contracts; condition subsequent
applies only to common law
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A condition precedent must occur before a party's performance
obligation arises, while a condition subsequent terminates an already existing
duty to perform. This distinction affects when and how contractual obligations
are triggered or extinguished.
8. Which statement best describes the "parol evidence rule"?
A. Oral evidence is always admissible to prove contract terms
B. Written contracts cannot be modified after signing
C. Prior or contemporaneous oral/written agreements cannot contradict a final
integrated written contract
D. Only written evidence is admissible in contract disputes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The parol evidence rule prohibits introduction of prior or
contemporaneous agreements that contradict or add to a final, integrated
written contract. It does not prevent evidence of subsequent modifications,
fraud, mistake, or ambiguity.
9. A contractor promises to build a house for $200,000. After beginning work, the
owner promises to pay an additional $20,000 if the contractor completes on
time. The contractor completes on time but the owner refuses to pay the extra
, $20,000. Under the pre-existing duty rule, is the owner obligated to pay?
A. Yes, because the owner benefited from on-time completion
B. Yes, because on-time completion was unforeseen
C. No, because the contractor had a pre-existing duty to complete the work
D. No, unless the additional payment was in writing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Under the pre-existing duty rule, promising additional
compensation for performing an existing contractual duty lacks new
consideration and is generally unenforceable. Exceptions exist for unforeseen
difficulties or modified scope, but mere on-time completion of the original duty
doesn't qualify.
10. Which of the following best describes "mutual mistake" in contract law?
A. Both parties are mistaken about the same material fact existing at contract
formation
B. One party knows the other is mistaken and remains silent
C. Both parties make poor business judgments after contract formation
D. One party is mistaken, and the other party is unaware of the mistake
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mutual mistake occurs when both parties share a mistaken belief
about a material fact that existed at the time of contract formation, making
enforcement unconscionable. This differs from unilateral mistake (D) and poor
business judgment (C).
11. What is the measure of "expectation damages" in contract breach cases?
A. Out-of-pocket expenses incurred by the non-breaching party
B. The benefit of the bargain, putting the non-breaching party in the position they
would have been if the contract was performed
C. Punitive damages multiplied by two
D. Only direct damages, excluding consequential damages
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Expectation damages aim to put the non-breaching party in the
position they would have been in had the contract been fully performed—the
"benefit of the bargain". This differs from reliance damages (A) which restore
pre-contract position.
