2026/2027
ATI RN Medical-Surgical Nursing
Proctored Retake Exam 2026/2027
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice
Questions, Test Bank Review, and Exam
Preparation Manual
Question 1
A nurse is preparing a client for an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which
position should the nurse place the client in?
A. Supine position
B. Prone position
C. Left lateral side-lying position
D. High Fowler’s position
Correct Answer: C. Left lateral side-lying position
Rationale: The left lateral position helps maintain airway patency, prevents aspiration,
and allows easier passage of the endoscope into the esophagus. Supine and prone
positions increase aspiration risk, while High Fowler’s is not standard for endoscopy
procedures.
Question 2
A client is scheduled for an EGD. Which pre-procedure instruction is most
appropriate?
A. Eat a light breakfast before the procedure
B. Maintain NPO status for 6–8 hours
C. Take laxatives the night before
D. Drink clear fluids up to 1 hour before
Correct Answer: B. Maintain NPO status for 6–8 hours
Rationale: NPO status reduces the risk of aspiration during endoscopy. Eating or
drinking before the procedure increases aspiration risk and interferes with
visualization.
,2026/2027
Question 3
A nurse is preparing a sterile field. In which order should sterile drapes be opened?
A. Left, right, top, bottom
B. Closest side, far side, left, right
C. Farthest flap first, then side flaps, then closest flap
D. Top flap first, then bottom, then sides
Correct Answer: C. Farthest flap first, then side flaps, then closest flap
Rationale: Opening the farthest flap first prevents contamination of the sterile field by
reaching over it. The closest flap is opened last to avoid crossing over sterile areas.
Question 4
Which action breaks sterile technique during a sterile procedure?
A. Touching sterile syringe on the field
B. Touching inner sterile drape surface
C. Touching outer wrapper of sterile package
D. Touching gloved hand with gloved hand
Correct Answer: C. Touching outer wrapper of sterile package
Rationale: The outer wrapper is considered non-sterile. Sterile objects may only
contact sterile surfaces. Gloved hands touching each other within sterile field is
acceptable.
Question 5
A nurse preparing a chest tube insertion sterile field identifies contamination when:
A. Sterile instrument is dropped on sterile field
B. Sterile saline is used on cotton ball
C. Procedure is delayed for 1 hour
D. Nurse turns to speak to someone
Correct Answer: D. Nurse turns to speak to someone
Rationale: Turning away from a sterile field increases risk of contamination from
airborne organisms. Delay alone does not contaminate the field.
Question 6
,2026/2027
A client with suspected tuberculosis should be placed on:
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions in negative pressure room
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C. Airborne precautions in negative pressure room
Rationale: TB spreads via airborne particles. Negative pressure rooms and N95 masks
are required to prevent transmission.
Question 7
Which symptom is an adverse effect of isoniazid?
A. Orange urine
B. Vision loss
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Hearing loss
Correct Answer: C. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Isoniazid causes vitamin B6 deficiency leading to neuropathy. Orange
urine is rifampin, vision changes are ethambutol.
Question 8
A client taking rifampin should be taught that:
A. Urine will become clear
B. Orange secretions are expected
C. Vision changes are expected
D. It increases potassium levels
Correct Answer: B. Orange secretions are expected
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless orange discoloration of bodily fluids.
Question 9
A client with right-sided stroke and left hemiplegia should be managed by:
A. Feeding on unaffected side only
B. Thickened fluids and aspiration precautions
, 2026/2027
C. Supine positioning flat
D. Avoid speech therapy
Correct Answer: B. Thickened fluids and aspiration precautions
Rationale: Stroke increases aspiration risk; thickened fluids and upright positioning
reduce complications.
Question 10
Which food should a client with heart failure avoid?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. Bacon and processed meats
D. Rice
Correct Answer: C. Bacon and processed meats
Rationale: Processed meats are high in sodium and worsen fluid retention in heart
failure.
Question 11
Which drug decreases aspirin effectiveness?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Morphine
D. Metformin
Correct Answer: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen competes with aspirin binding and reduces its antiplatelet effect.
Question 12
Ketorolac should NOT be used with:
A. Opioids
B. NSAIDs
C. Antihypertensives
D. Antacids
Correct Answer: B. NSAIDs
ATI RN Medical-Surgical Nursing
Proctored Retake Exam 2026/2027
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice
Questions, Test Bank Review, and Exam
Preparation Manual
Question 1
A nurse is preparing a client for an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which
position should the nurse place the client in?
A. Supine position
B. Prone position
C. Left lateral side-lying position
D. High Fowler’s position
Correct Answer: C. Left lateral side-lying position
Rationale: The left lateral position helps maintain airway patency, prevents aspiration,
and allows easier passage of the endoscope into the esophagus. Supine and prone
positions increase aspiration risk, while High Fowler’s is not standard for endoscopy
procedures.
Question 2
A client is scheduled for an EGD. Which pre-procedure instruction is most
appropriate?
A. Eat a light breakfast before the procedure
B. Maintain NPO status for 6–8 hours
C. Take laxatives the night before
D. Drink clear fluids up to 1 hour before
Correct Answer: B. Maintain NPO status for 6–8 hours
Rationale: NPO status reduces the risk of aspiration during endoscopy. Eating or
drinking before the procedure increases aspiration risk and interferes with
visualization.
,2026/2027
Question 3
A nurse is preparing a sterile field. In which order should sterile drapes be opened?
A. Left, right, top, bottom
B. Closest side, far side, left, right
C. Farthest flap first, then side flaps, then closest flap
D. Top flap first, then bottom, then sides
Correct Answer: C. Farthest flap first, then side flaps, then closest flap
Rationale: Opening the farthest flap first prevents contamination of the sterile field by
reaching over it. The closest flap is opened last to avoid crossing over sterile areas.
Question 4
Which action breaks sterile technique during a sterile procedure?
A. Touching sterile syringe on the field
B. Touching inner sterile drape surface
C. Touching outer wrapper of sterile package
D. Touching gloved hand with gloved hand
Correct Answer: C. Touching outer wrapper of sterile package
Rationale: The outer wrapper is considered non-sterile. Sterile objects may only
contact sterile surfaces. Gloved hands touching each other within sterile field is
acceptable.
Question 5
A nurse preparing a chest tube insertion sterile field identifies contamination when:
A. Sterile instrument is dropped on sterile field
B. Sterile saline is used on cotton ball
C. Procedure is delayed for 1 hour
D. Nurse turns to speak to someone
Correct Answer: D. Nurse turns to speak to someone
Rationale: Turning away from a sterile field increases risk of contamination from
airborne organisms. Delay alone does not contaminate the field.
Question 6
,2026/2027
A client with suspected tuberculosis should be placed on:
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions in negative pressure room
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C. Airborne precautions in negative pressure room
Rationale: TB spreads via airborne particles. Negative pressure rooms and N95 masks
are required to prevent transmission.
Question 7
Which symptom is an adverse effect of isoniazid?
A. Orange urine
B. Vision loss
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Hearing loss
Correct Answer: C. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Isoniazid causes vitamin B6 deficiency leading to neuropathy. Orange
urine is rifampin, vision changes are ethambutol.
Question 8
A client taking rifampin should be taught that:
A. Urine will become clear
B. Orange secretions are expected
C. Vision changes are expected
D. It increases potassium levels
Correct Answer: B. Orange secretions are expected
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless orange discoloration of bodily fluids.
Question 9
A client with right-sided stroke and left hemiplegia should be managed by:
A. Feeding on unaffected side only
B. Thickened fluids and aspiration precautions
, 2026/2027
C. Supine positioning flat
D. Avoid speech therapy
Correct Answer: B. Thickened fluids and aspiration precautions
Rationale: Stroke increases aspiration risk; thickened fluids and upright positioning
reduce complications.
Question 10
Which food should a client with heart failure avoid?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. Bacon and processed meats
D. Rice
Correct Answer: C. Bacon and processed meats
Rationale: Processed meats are high in sodium and worsen fluid retention in heart
failure.
Question 11
Which drug decreases aspirin effectiveness?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Morphine
D. Metformin
Correct Answer: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen competes with aspirin binding and reduces its antiplatelet effect.
Question 12
Ketorolac should NOT be used with:
A. Opioids
B. NSAIDs
C. Antihypertensives
D. Antacids
Correct Answer: B. NSAIDs
