SFPC SPeD Exam Study Set 2026/2027
Edition | Security Professional
Fundamentals Certification (DCSA) | 100
Verified Questions with DoD Security
Standards Alignment
Table of Contents
Section 1: Personnel Security (Questions 1–20) ...... 2
Section 2: Information Security (Questions 21–40) ...... 2
Section 3: Physical Security (Questions 41–55) ...... 2
Section 4: Industrial Security (Questions 56–75) ...... 2
Section 5: Security Education, Training, & Awareness (Questions 76–85) ...... 2
Section 6: Cross-Domain & Special Access Programs (Questions 86–100) ...... 2
Section 1: Personnel Security
Q1: Under the Trusted Workforce 2.0 framework, which process has replaced the traditional 5-year
periodic reinvestigation (PR) for maintaining personnel security clearances?
A. Annual self-reporting only
B. Continuous Vetting (CV) [CORRECT]
C. Biennial background checks
D. Decennial security reviews
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trusted Workforce 2.0, implemented by DCSA, replaced periodic reinvestigations with
Continuous Vetting (CV), an automated process that reviews cleared personnel against criminal,
financial, and other databases on an ongoing basis. CV enables real-time risk identification and allows
for faster mitigation of security concerns without waiting for a PR cycle.
Q2: Which Executive Order establishes the framework for access to classified information, including
eligibility criteria and the need-to-know principle?
,A. Executive Order 13526
B. Executive Order 12968 [CORRECT]
C. Executive Order 12829
D. Executive Order 12333
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Executive Order 12968, "Access to Classified Information," establishes the uniform standards
for granting, denying, and revoking security clearances. It mandates that access to classified information
shall be granted only to individuals who have been determined to be eligible, have signed a non-
disclosure agreement, and have a demonstrated need-to-know.
Q3: A Tier 3 investigation is required for access to which level of classified information?
A. Confidential
B. Secret [CORRECT]
C. Top Secret
D. TS/SCI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Tier 3 investigation (formerly National Agency Check with Law and Credit, or NACLC) is the
standard investigation required for eligibility to access Secret-level classified information. It includes a
review of national agency records, credit checks, and law enforcement checks. Tier 5 investigations are
required for Top Secret and SCI access.
Q4: A Tier 5 investigation is required for access to which level of classified information?
A. Confidential
B. Secret
C. Top Secret and SCI [CORRECT]
D. CUI only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Tier 5 investigation (formerly Single Scope Background Investigation, or SSBI) is required for
eligibility to access Top Secret and Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI). It includes a
comprehensive review of national agency records, credit checks, law enforcement checks, interviews
with the subject and references, and verification of employment, education, and residence history.
Q5: Which adjudicative guideline addresses an individual's allegiance to the United States and potential
foreign influence?
,A. Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
B. Guideline B: Foreign Influence [CORRECT]
C. Guideline C: Foreign Preference
D. Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SEAD 4 (Security Executive Agent Directive 4) establishes 13 adjudicative guidelines.
Guideline B, Foreign Influence, evaluates whether an individual's contacts, ties, or obligations to foreign
persons, governments, or entities create a heightened risk of exploitation, inducement, manipulation,
pressure, or coercion. It examines family ties, financial interests, and foreign activities that could
compromise national security.
Q6: Which adjudicative guideline evaluates whether an individual has exercised foreign citizenship,
voted in foreign elections, or served in foreign military forces?
A. Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
B. Guideline B: Foreign Influence
C. Guideline C: Foreign Preference [CORRECT]
D. Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SEAD 4 Guideline C, Foreign Preference, assesses whether an individual has demonstrated a
preference for a foreign country over the United States through actions such as exercising foreign
citizenship, voting in foreign elections, serving in foreign military forces, or possessing foreign passports.
These actions may indicate divided loyalties and raise security concerns.
Q7: A Personnel Security Action (PSA) is BEST described as:
A. A disciplinary action taken against a security violator
B. A formal request to initiate, upgrade, downgrade, or terminate a security clearance [CORRECT]
C. A physical security inspection report
D. An annual training completion certificate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Personnel Security Action (PSA) is a formal request submitted through the Defense
Information System for Security (DISS) or e-QIP to initiate, upgrade, downgrade, or terminate a security
clearance. PSAs are processed by the Central Verification Activity (CVA) and the Defense
Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) to manage the clearance lifecycle.
, Q8: Under Continuous Vetting (CV), which of the following events would trigger an automated review of
a cleared individual's security status?
A. A routine dental checkup
B. A reported arrest or criminal charge [CORRECT]
C. A change in marital status
D. A home address change within the same city
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous Vetting monitors cleared personnel through automated checks against criminal
databases, credit reports, and other records. A reported arrest, criminal charge, or conviction triggers an
automated review, prompting the security office to evaluate whether the incident raises concerns under
the adjudicative guidelines and requires further investigation or adverse action.
Q9: The "whole person concept" in personnel security adjudication means that:
A. Only the most recent incident is considered
B. All relevant factors, both favorable and unfavorable, are weighed together to determine eligibility
[CORRECT]
C. Only negative information is considered
D. The individual's job performance is the sole criterion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The whole person concept, established in SEAD 4, requires adjudicators to evaluate all
relevant factors—both favorable and unfavorable—when determining security clearance eligibility. This
includes the nature and seriousness of the conduct, circumstances, frequency, recency, age and
maturity at the time, voluntary reporting, and evidence of rehabilitation, ensuring a balanced and
individualized assessment.
Q10: A Letter of Intent (LOI) in the security clearance process is:
A. A job offer from a defense contractor
B. A preliminary notification that the government intends to deny or revoke a security clearance
[CORRECT]
C. A request for a security clearance upgrade
D. A certificate of security clearance completion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Letter of Intent (LOI) is issued by DCSA or the adjudicating agency to notify a cleared
individual that the government intends to deny, revoke, or suspend their security clearance based on
Edition | Security Professional
Fundamentals Certification (DCSA) | 100
Verified Questions with DoD Security
Standards Alignment
Table of Contents
Section 1: Personnel Security (Questions 1–20) ...... 2
Section 2: Information Security (Questions 21–40) ...... 2
Section 3: Physical Security (Questions 41–55) ...... 2
Section 4: Industrial Security (Questions 56–75) ...... 2
Section 5: Security Education, Training, & Awareness (Questions 76–85) ...... 2
Section 6: Cross-Domain & Special Access Programs (Questions 86–100) ...... 2
Section 1: Personnel Security
Q1: Under the Trusted Workforce 2.0 framework, which process has replaced the traditional 5-year
periodic reinvestigation (PR) for maintaining personnel security clearances?
A. Annual self-reporting only
B. Continuous Vetting (CV) [CORRECT]
C. Biennial background checks
D. Decennial security reviews
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trusted Workforce 2.0, implemented by DCSA, replaced periodic reinvestigations with
Continuous Vetting (CV), an automated process that reviews cleared personnel against criminal,
financial, and other databases on an ongoing basis. CV enables real-time risk identification and allows
for faster mitigation of security concerns without waiting for a PR cycle.
Q2: Which Executive Order establishes the framework for access to classified information, including
eligibility criteria and the need-to-know principle?
,A. Executive Order 13526
B. Executive Order 12968 [CORRECT]
C. Executive Order 12829
D. Executive Order 12333
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Executive Order 12968, "Access to Classified Information," establishes the uniform standards
for granting, denying, and revoking security clearances. It mandates that access to classified information
shall be granted only to individuals who have been determined to be eligible, have signed a non-
disclosure agreement, and have a demonstrated need-to-know.
Q3: A Tier 3 investigation is required for access to which level of classified information?
A. Confidential
B. Secret [CORRECT]
C. Top Secret
D. TS/SCI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Tier 3 investigation (formerly National Agency Check with Law and Credit, or NACLC) is the
standard investigation required for eligibility to access Secret-level classified information. It includes a
review of national agency records, credit checks, and law enforcement checks. Tier 5 investigations are
required for Top Secret and SCI access.
Q4: A Tier 5 investigation is required for access to which level of classified information?
A. Confidential
B. Secret
C. Top Secret and SCI [CORRECT]
D. CUI only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Tier 5 investigation (formerly Single Scope Background Investigation, or SSBI) is required for
eligibility to access Top Secret and Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI). It includes a
comprehensive review of national agency records, credit checks, law enforcement checks, interviews
with the subject and references, and verification of employment, education, and residence history.
Q5: Which adjudicative guideline addresses an individual's allegiance to the United States and potential
foreign influence?
,A. Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
B. Guideline B: Foreign Influence [CORRECT]
C. Guideline C: Foreign Preference
D. Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SEAD 4 (Security Executive Agent Directive 4) establishes 13 adjudicative guidelines.
Guideline B, Foreign Influence, evaluates whether an individual's contacts, ties, or obligations to foreign
persons, governments, or entities create a heightened risk of exploitation, inducement, manipulation,
pressure, or coercion. It examines family ties, financial interests, and foreign activities that could
compromise national security.
Q6: Which adjudicative guideline evaluates whether an individual has exercised foreign citizenship,
voted in foreign elections, or served in foreign military forces?
A. Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
B. Guideline B: Foreign Influence
C. Guideline C: Foreign Preference [CORRECT]
D. Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SEAD 4 Guideline C, Foreign Preference, assesses whether an individual has demonstrated a
preference for a foreign country over the United States through actions such as exercising foreign
citizenship, voting in foreign elections, serving in foreign military forces, or possessing foreign passports.
These actions may indicate divided loyalties and raise security concerns.
Q7: A Personnel Security Action (PSA) is BEST described as:
A. A disciplinary action taken against a security violator
B. A formal request to initiate, upgrade, downgrade, or terminate a security clearance [CORRECT]
C. A physical security inspection report
D. An annual training completion certificate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Personnel Security Action (PSA) is a formal request submitted through the Defense
Information System for Security (DISS) or e-QIP to initiate, upgrade, downgrade, or terminate a security
clearance. PSAs are processed by the Central Verification Activity (CVA) and the Defense
Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) to manage the clearance lifecycle.
, Q8: Under Continuous Vetting (CV), which of the following events would trigger an automated review of
a cleared individual's security status?
A. A routine dental checkup
B. A reported arrest or criminal charge [CORRECT]
C. A change in marital status
D. A home address change within the same city
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous Vetting monitors cleared personnel through automated checks against criminal
databases, credit reports, and other records. A reported arrest, criminal charge, or conviction triggers an
automated review, prompting the security office to evaluate whether the incident raises concerns under
the adjudicative guidelines and requires further investigation or adverse action.
Q9: The "whole person concept" in personnel security adjudication means that:
A. Only the most recent incident is considered
B. All relevant factors, both favorable and unfavorable, are weighed together to determine eligibility
[CORRECT]
C. Only negative information is considered
D. The individual's job performance is the sole criterion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The whole person concept, established in SEAD 4, requires adjudicators to evaluate all
relevant factors—both favorable and unfavorable—when determining security clearance eligibility. This
includes the nature and seriousness of the conduct, circumstances, frequency, recency, age and
maturity at the time, voluntary reporting, and evidence of rehabilitation, ensuring a balanced and
individualized assessment.
Q10: A Letter of Intent (LOI) in the security clearance process is:
A. A job offer from a defense contractor
B. A preliminary notification that the government intends to deny or revoke a security clearance
[CORRECT]
C. A request for a security clearance upgrade
D. A certificate of security clearance completion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Letter of Intent (LOI) is issued by DCSA or the adjudicating agency to notify a cleared
individual that the government intends to deny, revoke, or suspend their security clearance based on
