KAPLAN SECURE PREDICTOR A PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
Fundamentals of Nursing Care
Medical-Surgical Nursing
Obstetrics and Gynecology
Pediatric Nursing
Psychosocial and Mental Health Nursing
Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapy
Regulatory and Legal Compliance
Ethics and Professional Standards
Health Promotion and Maintenance
Critical Thinking and Clinical Decision-Making
Introduction
This practice assessment is designed to evaluate the knowledge, skills, and clinical judgment required for successful performance on the Kaplan
Secure Predictor A examination. The exam assesses competency across multiple nursing domains through multiple-choice and scenario-based
questions that emphasize real-world application and professional decision-making. Candidates will encounter questions covering foundational
theory, applied clinical knowledge, regulatory requirements, ethical standards, and critical thinking scenarios. The assessment mirrors the structure
and difficulty of the actual examination, preparing nursing students for high-stakes testing environments. Success on this predictor indicates
readiness for advanced nursing coursework and eventual licensure examination readiness.
,Section One: Questions 1–100
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client with superficial partial-thickness burns. Which client should the nurse assign to share a room with this patient?
A. A client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome
B. A client diagnosed with cellulitis of the left leg
C. A client diagnosed with pneumonia
D. A client diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease
🟢 A. A client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome
🔴 RATIONALE: Clients with burns require protection from infection. Cushing's syndrome involves adrenal hyperfunction and does not increase
infection risk. Cellulitis, pneumonia, and PID are all infectious conditions that could compromise the burn patient's immune status.
Question 2
The nurse evaluates the results of a client's purified protein derivative (PPD) test 2½ days after injection. The nurse observes a 6-mm induration.
How should the nurse document this finding?
A. Negative result
B. Positive result requiring immediate treatment
C. Positive result requiring further evaluation
D. Equivocal result requiring repeat testing
🟢 C. Positive result requiring further evaluation
🔴 RATIONALE: An induration of 5-9 mm in a client with no known risk factors indicates a positive PPD requiring further evaluation (chest X-ray,
clinical assessment) to determine active versus latent TB. Immediate treatment is not indicated without further evaluation.
Question 3
A male client asks the nurse, "Why am I experiencing erectile dysfunction (ED)?" The nurse reviews the client's medications. Which classification
increases the risk for ED?
A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B. Antihypertensive medications
C. Anticoagulant medications
D. Histamine H2 inhibitors
🟢 B. Antihypertensive medications
🔴 RATIONALE: Antihypertensive medications, particularly beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics, are well-documented to cause erectile dysfunction.
NSAIDs, anticoagulants, and H2 inhibitors do not typically cause ED.
,Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes mellitus who reports pain at 1600. The client's blood glucose is 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
B. Give 1 unit of regular insulin subcutaneously
C. Obtain a repeat glucose level in 30 minutes
D. Notify the physician immediately
🟢 A. Administer 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
🔴 RATIONALE: Blood glucose of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia. The priority is immediate treatment with 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate (juice,
regular soda, glucose tablets). Insulin would worsen hypoglycemia.
Question 5
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client experiencing acute dystonia as a side effect of antipsychotic medication?
A. Administer benztropine orally
B. Administer diphenhydramine intravenously
C. Administer benztropine intramuscularly
D. Administer lorazepam subcutaneously
🟢 C. Administer benztropine intramuscularly
🔴 RATIONALE: Acute dystonia is a life-threatening extrapyramidal side effect requiring immediate IM administration of benztropine for rapid
effect. Oral administration is too slow; diphenhydramine is less effective; lorazepam treats agitation not dystonia.
Question 6
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin. Which laboratory value must the nurse review before administration?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum potassium
C. Hemoglobin level
D. Platelet count
🟢 A. Serum creatinine
🔴 RATIONALE: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and requires monitoring of renal function (serum creatinine, BUN). Potassium, hemoglobin, and
platelets are not primary concerns with vancomycin administration.
, Question 7
A client with heart failure reports increased shortness of breath. The nurse notes 3+ edema in the lower extremities. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Furosemide
B. Digoxin
C. Metoprolol
D. Spironolactone
🟢 A. Furosemide
🔴 RATIONALE: Acute fluid overload in heart failure requires immediate diuresis with furosemide (loop diuretic) for rapid symptom relief. Digoxin
improves contractility but doesn't address acute edema; metoprolol is for chronic management; spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic with
slower effect.
Question 8
The nurse is caring for a client who received a renal transplant 3 days ago. Which finding indicates possible transplant rejection?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
B. Urine output 250 mL in 8 hours
C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
D. Temperature 98.6°F (37°C)
🟢 B. Urine output 250 mL in 8 hours
🔴 RATIONALE: Decreased urine output (<30 mL/hour) indicates possible transplant rejection and impaired renal function. Normal creatinine,
stable BP, and normal temperature do not indicate rejection.
Question 9
Which instruction is most important for a client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis?
A. Take the medication with food
B. Report yellow discoloration of skin immediately
C. Avoid driving while taking this medication
D. Double the dose if symptoms worsen
🟢 B. Report yellow discoloration of skin immediately
🔴 RATIONALE: INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Yellow skin (jaundice) indicates liver damage and requires immediate medical attention. Taking
with food reduces GI upset but is not critical; driving restrictions are not typical; doubling dose is dangerous.
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
Fundamentals of Nursing Care
Medical-Surgical Nursing
Obstetrics and Gynecology
Pediatric Nursing
Psychosocial and Mental Health Nursing
Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapy
Regulatory and Legal Compliance
Ethics and Professional Standards
Health Promotion and Maintenance
Critical Thinking and Clinical Decision-Making
Introduction
This practice assessment is designed to evaluate the knowledge, skills, and clinical judgment required for successful performance on the Kaplan
Secure Predictor A examination. The exam assesses competency across multiple nursing domains through multiple-choice and scenario-based
questions that emphasize real-world application and professional decision-making. Candidates will encounter questions covering foundational
theory, applied clinical knowledge, regulatory requirements, ethical standards, and critical thinking scenarios. The assessment mirrors the structure
and difficulty of the actual examination, preparing nursing students for high-stakes testing environments. Success on this predictor indicates
readiness for advanced nursing coursework and eventual licensure examination readiness.
,Section One: Questions 1–100
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client with superficial partial-thickness burns. Which client should the nurse assign to share a room with this patient?
A. A client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome
B. A client diagnosed with cellulitis of the left leg
C. A client diagnosed with pneumonia
D. A client diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease
🟢 A. A client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome
🔴 RATIONALE: Clients with burns require protection from infection. Cushing's syndrome involves adrenal hyperfunction and does not increase
infection risk. Cellulitis, pneumonia, and PID are all infectious conditions that could compromise the burn patient's immune status.
Question 2
The nurse evaluates the results of a client's purified protein derivative (PPD) test 2½ days after injection. The nurse observes a 6-mm induration.
How should the nurse document this finding?
A. Negative result
B. Positive result requiring immediate treatment
C. Positive result requiring further evaluation
D. Equivocal result requiring repeat testing
🟢 C. Positive result requiring further evaluation
🔴 RATIONALE: An induration of 5-9 mm in a client with no known risk factors indicates a positive PPD requiring further evaluation (chest X-ray,
clinical assessment) to determine active versus latent TB. Immediate treatment is not indicated without further evaluation.
Question 3
A male client asks the nurse, "Why am I experiencing erectile dysfunction (ED)?" The nurse reviews the client's medications. Which classification
increases the risk for ED?
A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B. Antihypertensive medications
C. Anticoagulant medications
D. Histamine H2 inhibitors
🟢 B. Antihypertensive medications
🔴 RATIONALE: Antihypertensive medications, particularly beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics, are well-documented to cause erectile dysfunction.
NSAIDs, anticoagulants, and H2 inhibitors do not typically cause ED.
,Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes mellitus who reports pain at 1600. The client's blood glucose is 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
B. Give 1 unit of regular insulin subcutaneously
C. Obtain a repeat glucose level in 30 minutes
D. Notify the physician immediately
🟢 A. Administer 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
🔴 RATIONALE: Blood glucose of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia. The priority is immediate treatment with 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate (juice,
regular soda, glucose tablets). Insulin would worsen hypoglycemia.
Question 5
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client experiencing acute dystonia as a side effect of antipsychotic medication?
A. Administer benztropine orally
B. Administer diphenhydramine intravenously
C. Administer benztropine intramuscularly
D. Administer lorazepam subcutaneously
🟢 C. Administer benztropine intramuscularly
🔴 RATIONALE: Acute dystonia is a life-threatening extrapyramidal side effect requiring immediate IM administration of benztropine for rapid
effect. Oral administration is too slow; diphenhydramine is less effective; lorazepam treats agitation not dystonia.
Question 6
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin. Which laboratory value must the nurse review before administration?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum potassium
C. Hemoglobin level
D. Platelet count
🟢 A. Serum creatinine
🔴 RATIONALE: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and requires monitoring of renal function (serum creatinine, BUN). Potassium, hemoglobin, and
platelets are not primary concerns with vancomycin administration.
, Question 7
A client with heart failure reports increased shortness of breath. The nurse notes 3+ edema in the lower extremities. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Furosemide
B. Digoxin
C. Metoprolol
D. Spironolactone
🟢 A. Furosemide
🔴 RATIONALE: Acute fluid overload in heart failure requires immediate diuresis with furosemide (loop diuretic) for rapid symptom relief. Digoxin
improves contractility but doesn't address acute edema; metoprolol is for chronic management; spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic with
slower effect.
Question 8
The nurse is caring for a client who received a renal transplant 3 days ago. Which finding indicates possible transplant rejection?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
B. Urine output 250 mL in 8 hours
C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
D. Temperature 98.6°F (37°C)
🟢 B. Urine output 250 mL in 8 hours
🔴 RATIONALE: Decreased urine output (<30 mL/hour) indicates possible transplant rejection and impaired renal function. Normal creatinine,
stable BP, and normal temperature do not indicate rejection.
Question 9
Which instruction is most important for a client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis?
A. Take the medication with food
B. Report yellow discoloration of skin immediately
C. Avoid driving while taking this medication
D. Double the dose if symptoms worsen
🟢 B. Report yellow discoloration of skin immediately
🔴 RATIONALE: INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Yellow skin (jaundice) indicates liver damage and requires immediate medical attention. Taking
with food reduces GI upset but is not critical; driving restrictions are not typical; doubling dose is dangerous.
