KAPLAN ADULT HEALTH III EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
Cardiovascular System Nursing
Respiratory System Nursing
Renal and Urinary System Nursing
Endocrine System Nursing
Gastrointestinal System Nursing
Neurological System Nursing
Musculoskeletal System Nursing
Hematological and Immunological Nursing
Pharmacology in Adult Health
Ethics, Legal Compliance, and Professional Standards
Introduction
This exam assesses comprehensive knowledge and clinical decision-making skills essential for adult health nursing practice. The purpose is to
evaluate mastery of medical-surgical nursing concepts including disease management, patient care interventions, nursing assessments, and
pharmacological treatments. The assessment consists of 100 multiple-choice questions with scenario-based items that emphasize real-world
application of nursing principles. Candidates will demonstrate critical thinking abilities in prioritizing care, recognizing complications,
implementing evidence-based interventions, and making safe clinical judgments. The exam reflects current professional standards and prepares
nursing students for high-stakes licensing examinations and clinical practice in adult health settings.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
Question 1
A client with new-onset heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
,A. Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
B. Peak serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Lung sounds improved bilaterally
D. Urine output 250 mL in 2 hours
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypokalemia (potassium 3.2 mEq/L) is a critical adverse effect of furosemide that requires immediate intervention to prevent
cardiac dysrhythmias. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, and low potassium levels pose significant safety risks.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has an oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the most
appropriate action?
A. Increase oxygen to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min and monitor
C. Prepare for immediate intubation
D. Obtain a arterial blood gas specimen first
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: In COPD, excessive oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe. Maintaining oxygen at low levels (2 L/min) while monitoring
is the safest approach. High oxygen concentrations may cause respiratory depression in COPD clients.
Question 3
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 420 mg/dL. Which symptom should the nurse assess for as indicative of
hyperglycemic crisis?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypertension
D. Cool, dry skin
🟢 Correct answer: B
,🔴 RATIONALE: Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in hyperglycemic crisis
(diabetic ketoacidosis). This indicates the body is attempting to eliminate excess carbon dioxide to correct acidosis.
Question 4
The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a client. Which laboratory value must be reviewed before administration?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
C. Platelet count
D. White blood cell count
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT and INR to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation and prevent bleeding complications. The
therapeutic INR range for most conditions is 2.0-3.0.
Question 5
A client presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain described as "tearing" and radiating to the back. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. Aortic dissection
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Tearing chest pain radiating to the back is the classic presentation of aortic dissection. This is a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate diagnosis and surgical intervention.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which finding indicates the client is in the oliguric phase?
, A. Urine output 50 mL in 24 hours
B. Urine output 1,200 mL in 24 hours
C. Serum creatinine decreasing
D. BUN level within normal range
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 RATIONALE: The oliguric phase of AKI is characterized by urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours. Urine output of 50 mL indicates severe
oliguria and requires close monitoring for complications.
Question 7
A client with community-acquired pneumonia is prescribed levofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Take with dairy products for better absorption
B. Avoid sunlight exposure during therapy
C. Take immediately before bedtime
D. Stop medication if diarrhea occurs
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Levofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) can cause photosensitivity. Clients should avoid excessive sunlight exposure and use sunscreen to
prevent skin reactions during therapy.
Question 8
The nurse assesses a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which ECG finding is most indicative of acute MI?
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. ST-segment elevation
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. First-degree heart block
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: ST-segment elevation is the hallmark ECG finding in acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). This indicates ongoing
myocardial injury and requires immediate reperfusion therapy.
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains
Cardiovascular System Nursing
Respiratory System Nursing
Renal and Urinary System Nursing
Endocrine System Nursing
Gastrointestinal System Nursing
Neurological System Nursing
Musculoskeletal System Nursing
Hematological and Immunological Nursing
Pharmacology in Adult Health
Ethics, Legal Compliance, and Professional Standards
Introduction
This exam assesses comprehensive knowledge and clinical decision-making skills essential for adult health nursing practice. The purpose is to
evaluate mastery of medical-surgical nursing concepts including disease management, patient care interventions, nursing assessments, and
pharmacological treatments. The assessment consists of 100 multiple-choice questions with scenario-based items that emphasize real-world
application of nursing principles. Candidates will demonstrate critical thinking abilities in prioritizing care, recognizing complications,
implementing evidence-based interventions, and making safe clinical judgments. The exam reflects current professional standards and prepares
nursing students for high-stakes licensing examinations and clinical practice in adult health settings.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
Question 1
A client with new-onset heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
,A. Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
B. Peak serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Lung sounds improved bilaterally
D. Urine output 250 mL in 2 hours
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypokalemia (potassium 3.2 mEq/L) is a critical adverse effect of furosemide that requires immediate intervention to prevent
cardiac dysrhythmias. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, and low potassium levels pose significant safety risks.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has an oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the most
appropriate action?
A. Increase oxygen to 4 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min and monitor
C. Prepare for immediate intubation
D. Obtain a arterial blood gas specimen first
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: In COPD, excessive oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe. Maintaining oxygen at low levels (2 L/min) while monitoring
is the safest approach. High oxygen concentrations may cause respiratory depression in COPD clients.
Question 3
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 420 mg/dL. Which symptom should the nurse assess for as indicative of
hyperglycemic crisis?
A. Bradycardia
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Hypertension
D. Cool, dry skin
🟢 Correct answer: B
,🔴 RATIONALE: Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in hyperglycemic crisis
(diabetic ketoacidosis). This indicates the body is attempting to eliminate excess carbon dioxide to correct acidosis.
Question 4
The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a client. Which laboratory value must be reviewed before administration?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
C. Platelet count
D. White blood cell count
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT and INR to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation and prevent bleeding complications. The
therapeutic INR range for most conditions is 2.0-3.0.
Question 5
A client presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain described as "tearing" and radiating to the back. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. Aortic dissection
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Tearing chest pain radiating to the back is the classic presentation of aortic dissection. This is a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate diagnosis and surgical intervention.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which finding indicates the client is in the oliguric phase?
, A. Urine output 50 mL in 24 hours
B. Urine output 1,200 mL in 24 hours
C. Serum creatinine decreasing
D. BUN level within normal range
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 RATIONALE: The oliguric phase of AKI is characterized by urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours. Urine output of 50 mL indicates severe
oliguria and requires close monitoring for complications.
Question 7
A client with community-acquired pneumonia is prescribed levofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Take with dairy products for better absorption
B. Avoid sunlight exposure during therapy
C. Take immediately before bedtime
D. Stop medication if diarrhea occurs
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: Levofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) can cause photosensitivity. Clients should avoid excessive sunlight exposure and use sunscreen to
prevent skin reactions during therapy.
Question 8
The nurse assesses a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which ECG finding is most indicative of acute MI?
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. ST-segment elevation
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. First-degree heart block
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 RATIONALE: ST-segment elevation is the hallmark ECG finding in acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). This indicates ongoing
myocardial injury and requires immediate reperfusion therapy.
