Galen NUR 242 Exam 1 Review questions |
Actual Exam 2026/2027 Questions with
Verified Detailed Solutions | 100%
Guaranteed Pass (New Version)
Galen NUR 242 Exam 1 covers Medical-Surgical Nursing concepts, focusing heavily on fluid
and electrolyte imbalances, acid-base balance, pain management, and perioperative
care. The exam tests your ability to prioritize care, interpret lab values, and recognize clinical
manifestations.
Below Review the top 40+ concepts, Q&A, and study tools below to prepare.
Essential Concepts
• Fluid & Electrolytes: Normal ranges for Na⁺, K⁺, Ca²⁺, Mg²⁺. Signs of deficits/excess.
• Acid-Base: pH, PaCO₂, HCO₃. Interpretation of respiratory/metabolic
acidosis/alkalosis.
• Pain Assessment: PQRST framework. Tools like the Wong-Baker FACES scale.
• Perioperative: Pre-op checklist, intra-op safety, and post-op respiratory/circulatory
assessments.
Q1. A patient has a pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which action should the
nurse take first? [Multiple Choice]
A) Apply an occlusive dressing to the heel ulcer
B) Assess the patient's leg pulses and cap refill
C) Schedule the patient for immediate surgical debridement
D) Place the patient on broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
Answer: Assess the patient's leg pulses and cap refill
Explanation: When caring for a pressure ulcer on the heel, the nurse should first assess
circulation to the area — pulses and capillary refill indicate perfusion and help determine
whether the tissue is viable. This assessment guides treatment decisions. The other options are
not first actions: immediately applying dressings, ordering surgery, or starting antibiotics may be
1
, needed later but without first assessing perfusion you lack essential information. Assessing
circulation is the priority step.
Q2. A postoperative client has extreme pain that worsens during physical
therapy. Which pain-management strategy should the nurse include in the care
plan? [Multiple Choice]
A) Withhold analgesics during physical therapy sessions
B) Only PRN analgesics as requested by the patient
C) Round the clock analgesic with PRN analgesics
D) Use nonpharmacologic measures exclusively for pain control
Answer: Round the clock analgesic with PRN analgesics
Explanation: For severe postoperative pain that intensifies during physical therapy, a scheduled
(around-the-clock) analgesic regimen helps maintain baseline pain control so the patient can
participate in therapy, with additional PRN doses for breakthrough pain. This approach prevents
pain peaks and improves function. The other options are less appropriate: only PRN dosing may
not provide steady control, withholding analgesia during PT will hinder participation, and relying
solely on nonpharmacologic methods is unlikely to manage severe postoperative pain effectively.
Q3. A patient with MRSA is on contact precautions and requires a CT scan. What
is the most appropriate nursing action before transport? [Multiple Choice]
A) Ask the patient to remove isolation labels before transport
B) Call Radiology and make them aware of the isolation precaution
C) Transport the patient without comment and let staff discover the precautions
D) Cancel the CT because the patient has an infectious organism
Answer: Call Radiology and make them aware of the isolation precaution
Explanation: When transporting a patient on contact precautions (for example, with MRSA) to
another department, the nurse should notify the receiving area so they can prepare appropriate
infection-control measures and minimize exposure. Simply transferring the patient without
notification risks spreading the organism. The other options are wrong because they either
ignore the need to communicate isolation status (doing nothing), suggest cancelling necessary
diagnostics without cause, or assume the receiving department will automatically know — which
may not be true. Clear communication is the safe, correct action.
Q4. Which set of infections should prompt DROPLET precautions? [Multiple Choice]
A) Gastroenteritis and Hepatitis A
2
, B) TB, Measles, and Varicella
C) Influenza, Pneumonia, and Meningitis
D) MRSA and Pediculosis
Answer: Influenza, Pneumonia, and Meningitis
Explanation: Droplet precautions are used for pathogens spread by large respiratory droplets
that travel short distances (usually within about 3 feet). Influenza, pneumonia, and meningitis
are identified as infections requiring droplet precautions, which include wearing a surgical mask
when within close contact. The other choices are incorrect because MRSA/pediculosis use
standard precautions, TB/measles/varicella require airborne precautions which are more
stringent, and bloodborne infections require blood/body-fluid precautions rather than droplet-
specific measures.
Q5. A nurse should report 200 mL of sanguineous wound-drain output on the
second postoperative day to the surgeon. [True/False]
A) True
B) False
Answer: True
Explanation: Sanguineous drainage indicates the presence of blood in wound output. On the
second postoperative day, an output of 200 mL of sanguineous fluid is a notable finding that may
indicate ongoing bleeding and therefore should be reported to the surgeon as a priority.
Q6. Which group of infections requires AIRBORNE precautions? [Multiple Choice]
A) MRSA and Pediculosis
B) Influenza, Pneumonia, and Meningitis
C) Hepatitis A and C
D) TB, Measles, and Varicella
Answer: TB, Measles, and Varicella
Explanation: Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that can travel on very small droplet
nuclei and remain suspended in air. TB, measles, and varicella are classic airborne infections and
require airborne precautions such as negative-pressure rooms and N95 respirators. The other
options are incorrect because they list infections that need either standard or droplet precautions
(MRSA/pediculosis are standard; influenza/pneumonia/meningitis are droplet) rather than
airborne measures.
3
Actual Exam 2026/2027 Questions with
Verified Detailed Solutions | 100%
Guaranteed Pass (New Version)
Galen NUR 242 Exam 1 covers Medical-Surgical Nursing concepts, focusing heavily on fluid
and electrolyte imbalances, acid-base balance, pain management, and perioperative
care. The exam tests your ability to prioritize care, interpret lab values, and recognize clinical
manifestations.
Below Review the top 40+ concepts, Q&A, and study tools below to prepare.
Essential Concepts
• Fluid & Electrolytes: Normal ranges for Na⁺, K⁺, Ca²⁺, Mg²⁺. Signs of deficits/excess.
• Acid-Base: pH, PaCO₂, HCO₃. Interpretation of respiratory/metabolic
acidosis/alkalosis.
• Pain Assessment: PQRST framework. Tools like the Wong-Baker FACES scale.
• Perioperative: Pre-op checklist, intra-op safety, and post-op respiratory/circulatory
assessments.
Q1. A patient has a pressure ulcer on the right heel. Which action should the
nurse take first? [Multiple Choice]
A) Apply an occlusive dressing to the heel ulcer
B) Assess the patient's leg pulses and cap refill
C) Schedule the patient for immediate surgical debridement
D) Place the patient on broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
Answer: Assess the patient's leg pulses and cap refill
Explanation: When caring for a pressure ulcer on the heel, the nurse should first assess
circulation to the area — pulses and capillary refill indicate perfusion and help determine
whether the tissue is viable. This assessment guides treatment decisions. The other options are
not first actions: immediately applying dressings, ordering surgery, or starting antibiotics may be
1
, needed later but without first assessing perfusion you lack essential information. Assessing
circulation is the priority step.
Q2. A postoperative client has extreme pain that worsens during physical
therapy. Which pain-management strategy should the nurse include in the care
plan? [Multiple Choice]
A) Withhold analgesics during physical therapy sessions
B) Only PRN analgesics as requested by the patient
C) Round the clock analgesic with PRN analgesics
D) Use nonpharmacologic measures exclusively for pain control
Answer: Round the clock analgesic with PRN analgesics
Explanation: For severe postoperative pain that intensifies during physical therapy, a scheduled
(around-the-clock) analgesic regimen helps maintain baseline pain control so the patient can
participate in therapy, with additional PRN doses for breakthrough pain. This approach prevents
pain peaks and improves function. The other options are less appropriate: only PRN dosing may
not provide steady control, withholding analgesia during PT will hinder participation, and relying
solely on nonpharmacologic methods is unlikely to manage severe postoperative pain effectively.
Q3. A patient with MRSA is on contact precautions and requires a CT scan. What
is the most appropriate nursing action before transport? [Multiple Choice]
A) Ask the patient to remove isolation labels before transport
B) Call Radiology and make them aware of the isolation precaution
C) Transport the patient without comment and let staff discover the precautions
D) Cancel the CT because the patient has an infectious organism
Answer: Call Radiology and make them aware of the isolation precaution
Explanation: When transporting a patient on contact precautions (for example, with MRSA) to
another department, the nurse should notify the receiving area so they can prepare appropriate
infection-control measures and minimize exposure. Simply transferring the patient without
notification risks spreading the organism. The other options are wrong because they either
ignore the need to communicate isolation status (doing nothing), suggest cancelling necessary
diagnostics without cause, or assume the receiving department will automatically know — which
may not be true. Clear communication is the safe, correct action.
Q4. Which set of infections should prompt DROPLET precautions? [Multiple Choice]
A) Gastroenteritis and Hepatitis A
2
, B) TB, Measles, and Varicella
C) Influenza, Pneumonia, and Meningitis
D) MRSA and Pediculosis
Answer: Influenza, Pneumonia, and Meningitis
Explanation: Droplet precautions are used for pathogens spread by large respiratory droplets
that travel short distances (usually within about 3 feet). Influenza, pneumonia, and meningitis
are identified as infections requiring droplet precautions, which include wearing a surgical mask
when within close contact. The other choices are incorrect because MRSA/pediculosis use
standard precautions, TB/measles/varicella require airborne precautions which are more
stringent, and bloodborne infections require blood/body-fluid precautions rather than droplet-
specific measures.
Q5. A nurse should report 200 mL of sanguineous wound-drain output on the
second postoperative day to the surgeon. [True/False]
A) True
B) False
Answer: True
Explanation: Sanguineous drainage indicates the presence of blood in wound output. On the
second postoperative day, an output of 200 mL of sanguineous fluid is a notable finding that may
indicate ongoing bleeding and therefore should be reported to the surgeon as a priority.
Q6. Which group of infections requires AIRBORNE precautions? [Multiple Choice]
A) MRSA and Pediculosis
B) Influenza, Pneumonia, and Meningitis
C) Hepatitis A and C
D) TB, Measles, and Varicella
Answer: TB, Measles, and Varicella
Explanation: Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that can travel on very small droplet
nuclei and remain suspended in air. TB, measles, and varicella are classic airborne infections and
require airborne precautions such as negative-pressure rooms and N95 respirators. The other
options are incorrect because they list infections that need either standard or droplet precautions
(MRSA/pediculosis are standard; influenza/pneumonia/meningitis are droplet) rather than
airborne measures.
3
