RQI 2025 ACLS Healthcare Provider Exam
Latest Version | Questions and Correct Answers |
Verified Solution 100%.
SECTION 1: HIGH-QUALITY CPR & CHEST COMPRESSION METRICS (Questions 1–8)
Q1: A 62-year-old male collapses in the emergency department. The monitor
shows ventricular fibrillation. The first team member initiates chest
compressions. What is the correct compression rate per minute for high-quality
CPR in adults?
A. 80–100 compressions/minute
B. 100–120 compressions/minute [CORRECT]
C. 120–140 compressions/minute
D. 140–160 compressions/minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the AHA ACLS guidelines specify a compression rate
of 100 to 120 compressions per minute for adults. Rates below 100 reduce
perfusion, and rates above 120 compromise compression depth and coronary
perfusion pressure.
Q2: During CPR on an adult patient, the team leader observes the compressor's
hands. Which finding indicates adequate chest compression depth?
A. Sternal depression of 1.5 to 2 inches (4–5 cm)
B. Sternal depression of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not greater than 2.4 inches (6
cm) [CORRECT]
C. Sternal depression of 2.5 to 3 inches (6.5–7.5 cm)
D. Sternal depression of 1 to 1.5 inches (2.5–4 cm)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the AHA recommends a compression depth of at least
2 inches (5 cm) but not greater than 2.4 inches (6 cm) for adult patients. Depths
less than 2 inches are inadequate for generating sufficient cardiac output.
,Q3: A team member is performing chest compressions on an adult in cardiac
arrest. The team leader notes incomplete chest recoil between compressions.
What is the most important consequence of incomplete chest recoil?
A. Increased risk of rib fracture
B. Decreased venous return and reduced coronary perfusion pressure
[CORRECT]
C. Increased risk of gastric inflation
D. Decreased risk of ventilator-associated lung injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because incomplete chest recoil increases intrathoracic
pressure during the relaxation phase, which impedes venous return to the heart
and reduces coronary perfusion pressure. Full recoil allows optimal cardiac filling
between compressions.
Q4: During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader is monitoring CPR quality.
Which metric best reflects the proportion of time during a cardiac arrest that
chest compressions are being performed?
A. Compression fraction [CORRECT]
B. Perfusion index
C. Coronary perfusion pressure
D. Return of spontaneous circulation rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because compression fraction is defined as the proportion of
time during a cardiac arrest that chest compressions are performed. The AHA
target is at least 80%, as higher fractions correlate with improved survival.
Q5: A patient in cardiac arrest is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation.
The team leader wants to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. What is
the recommended ventilation strategy for an intubated adult during CPR?
A. 1 breath every 2–3 seconds (20–30 breaths/minute)
B. 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/minute) with continuous compressions
[CORRECT]
C. 1 breath every 3–4 seconds (15–20 breaths/minute)
, D. Synchronized breaths with every 5th compression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because once an advanced airway is in place, the
recommended ventilation rate is 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/minute)
with continuous chest compressions. This minimizes interruptions and avoids
hyperventilation.
Q6: During CPR, the team rotates compressors every 2 minutes. What is the
primary rationale for changing compressors at this interval?
A. To prevent compressor fatigue and maintain adequate compression depth and
rate [CORRECT]
B. To allow time for rhythm analysis
C. To minimize the risk of rib fractures
D. To synchronize with medication administration timing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because compressor fatigue develops rapidly, typically within
2 minutes, leading to decreased compression depth and rate. Rotating
compressors every 2 minutes or 5 cycles of 30:2 maintains high-quality CPR.
Q7: A patient is in cardiac arrest with an advanced airway in place. The team is
performing continuous compressions. What is the correct compression-to-
ventilation ratio?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. Continuous compressions with 1 breath every 6 seconds; no specific ratio
[CORRECT]
D. 5:1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because when an advanced airway (ETT or SGA) is in place,
compressions are delivered continuously without pausing for breaths, and
ventilations are given asynchronously at 1 breath every 6 seconds. The 30:2 ratio
applies only before airway placement.
Q8: The team leader is debriefing after a resuscitation. Data show a compression
fraction of 72%. What action should be taken for future resuscitations?
Latest Version | Questions and Correct Answers |
Verified Solution 100%.
SECTION 1: HIGH-QUALITY CPR & CHEST COMPRESSION METRICS (Questions 1–8)
Q1: A 62-year-old male collapses in the emergency department. The monitor
shows ventricular fibrillation. The first team member initiates chest
compressions. What is the correct compression rate per minute for high-quality
CPR in adults?
A. 80–100 compressions/minute
B. 100–120 compressions/minute [CORRECT]
C. 120–140 compressions/minute
D. 140–160 compressions/minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the AHA ACLS guidelines specify a compression rate
of 100 to 120 compressions per minute for adults. Rates below 100 reduce
perfusion, and rates above 120 compromise compression depth and coronary
perfusion pressure.
Q2: During CPR on an adult patient, the team leader observes the compressor's
hands. Which finding indicates adequate chest compression depth?
A. Sternal depression of 1.5 to 2 inches (4–5 cm)
B. Sternal depression of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not greater than 2.4 inches (6
cm) [CORRECT]
C. Sternal depression of 2.5 to 3 inches (6.5–7.5 cm)
D. Sternal depression of 1 to 1.5 inches (2.5–4 cm)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the AHA recommends a compression depth of at least
2 inches (5 cm) but not greater than 2.4 inches (6 cm) for adult patients. Depths
less than 2 inches are inadequate for generating sufficient cardiac output.
,Q3: A team member is performing chest compressions on an adult in cardiac
arrest. The team leader notes incomplete chest recoil between compressions.
What is the most important consequence of incomplete chest recoil?
A. Increased risk of rib fracture
B. Decreased venous return and reduced coronary perfusion pressure
[CORRECT]
C. Increased risk of gastric inflation
D. Decreased risk of ventilator-associated lung injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because incomplete chest recoil increases intrathoracic
pressure during the relaxation phase, which impedes venous return to the heart
and reduces coronary perfusion pressure. Full recoil allows optimal cardiac filling
between compressions.
Q4: During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader is monitoring CPR quality.
Which metric best reflects the proportion of time during a cardiac arrest that
chest compressions are being performed?
A. Compression fraction [CORRECT]
B. Perfusion index
C. Coronary perfusion pressure
D. Return of spontaneous circulation rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because compression fraction is defined as the proportion of
time during a cardiac arrest that chest compressions are performed. The AHA
target is at least 80%, as higher fractions correlate with improved survival.
Q5: A patient in cardiac arrest is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation.
The team leader wants to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. What is
the recommended ventilation strategy for an intubated adult during CPR?
A. 1 breath every 2–3 seconds (20–30 breaths/minute)
B. 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/minute) with continuous compressions
[CORRECT]
C. 1 breath every 3–4 seconds (15–20 breaths/minute)
, D. Synchronized breaths with every 5th compression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because once an advanced airway is in place, the
recommended ventilation rate is 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/minute)
with continuous chest compressions. This minimizes interruptions and avoids
hyperventilation.
Q6: During CPR, the team rotates compressors every 2 minutes. What is the
primary rationale for changing compressors at this interval?
A. To prevent compressor fatigue and maintain adequate compression depth and
rate [CORRECT]
B. To allow time for rhythm analysis
C. To minimize the risk of rib fractures
D. To synchronize with medication administration timing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because compressor fatigue develops rapidly, typically within
2 minutes, leading to decreased compression depth and rate. Rotating
compressors every 2 minutes or 5 cycles of 30:2 maintains high-quality CPR.
Q7: A patient is in cardiac arrest with an advanced airway in place. The team is
performing continuous compressions. What is the correct compression-to-
ventilation ratio?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. Continuous compressions with 1 breath every 6 seconds; no specific ratio
[CORRECT]
D. 5:1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because when an advanced airway (ETT or SGA) is in place,
compressions are delivered continuously without pausing for breaths, and
ventilations are given asynchronously at 1 breath every 6 seconds. The 30:2 ratio
applies only before airway placement.
Q8: The team leader is debriefing after a resuscitation. Data show a compression
fraction of 72%. What action should be taken for future resuscitations?
