2023 ATI RN
PEDIATRIC
EXAM QUESTIONS
(3 FULL SET EXAMS)
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
GET A LEVEL 2 OR HIGHER
What You’ll Get:
• 450 PEDIATRIC nursing questions
• Detailed answer rationales for each question
Perfect For:
• RN nursing students
• NCLEX-RN preparation
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V1) .................................... 2
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V2) .................................. 49
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V3) .................................. 89
(BONUS) ATI PEDIATRIC 200+ QS ...................................... 125
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V1)
SCENARIO 1: ANTEPARTUM CLIENT WITH PRETERM LABOR RISK
1. A nurse is assisting with the care for a client in an antepartum unit. After
reviewing the History and Physical, Nurses' Notes, and Vital Signs, which
findings from the client's medical record are risk factors (indications) for preterm
labor? (Select all that apply)
A. History of 2 preterm births at 30 and 34 weeks of gestation
B. Current gestational age of 34 4/7 weeks with twin pregnancy
C. Late prenatal care
D. BMI > 30
E. Periodontal disease
F. Client reports smoking 4 cigarettes per day
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E, F
Rationales:
• A. CORRECT – Previous preterm birth is the strongest predictor of subsequent
preterm labor. History of 2 preterm births significantly increases risk.
• B. CORRECT – Multiple gestation (twins) and current gestational age in late
preterm period (34 weeks) are both risk factors for preterm delivery.
, • C. CORRECT – Late or no prenatal care is associated with increased risk of
preterm labor due to lack of monitoring and intervention.
• D. INCORRECT – While obesity can complicate pregnancy, it is not a primary
risk factor for preterm labor specifically.
• E. CORRECT – Periodontal disease has been linked to increased risk of preterm
birth due to inflammatory mediators.
• F. CORRECT – Smoking during pregnancy is a major modifiable risk factor for
preterm labor, low birth weight, and placental complications.
2. Which of the following findings from the client's medical record should the
nurse report to the client's primary nurse? (Select all that apply)
A. Vaginal examination showing cervical dilation of 4 cm
B. Pain rate of 8/10
C. Uterine contraction pattern every 2-3 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationales:
• A. CORRECT – Cervical dilation of 4 cm indicates active preterm labor and
requires immediate intervention for tocolysis or delivery preparation.
• B. CORRECT – Pain rate of 8/10 indicates significant discomfort that may affect
maternal hemodynamics and fetal status; requires assessment and intervention.
• C. CORRECT – Regular, frequent contractions (every 2-3 minutes) with
adequate duration indicate progressive labor pattern requiring immediate
provider notification.
3. Complete the following sentence: The greatest risk to the fetus is
______________ due to the maternal contraction pattern.
Options: A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Intraventricular hemorrhage
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Retinopathy of prematurity
, Correct Answer: A. Respiratory distress syndrome
Rationale: The greatest risk to a fetus at 34 weeks gestation with preterm labor is
respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). At this gestational age, fetal surfactant
production may be inadequate, leading to alveolar collapse and respiratory failure after
delivery. The maternal contraction pattern indicates imminent delivery, making RDS the
most immediate life-threatening complication. While B, C, and D are complications of
prematurity, RDS is the most immediate threat requiring surfactant administration and
respiratory support.
4. Drag 1 condition and 1 client finding to fill in each blank: The nurse should
anticipate a provider prescription for ______________ due to the client's
______________.
Options for First Blank (Medication): A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Terbutaline
C. Nifedipine
D. Betamethasone
Options for Second Blank (Finding): A. Labor progression
B. Cervical change
C. Contractions every 5 minutes
D. Fetal heart rate decelerations
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulfate + Labor progression
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the antenatal neuroprotective agent of choice when
preterm delivery is imminent (typically <32 weeks, though often used up to 34 weeks). It
reduces the risk of cerebral palsy in preterm infants. The nurse should anticipate this
prescription due to labor progression (active cervical change and regular
contractions), which indicates delivery is likely within 24 hours. Magnesium sulfate is
administered for neuroprotection when delivery is anticipated, not as a tocolytic (though
it has some tocolytic properties, its primary use here is fetal neuroprotection).
5. The nurse is collaborating with the client's primary nurse to make
recommendations of interventions for implementation to the client's plan of care.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend? (Select 5
interventions)
PEDIATRIC
EXAM QUESTIONS
(3 FULL SET EXAMS)
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
GET A LEVEL 2 OR HIGHER
What You’ll Get:
• 450 PEDIATRIC nursing questions
• Detailed answer rationales for each question
Perfect For:
• RN nursing students
• NCLEX-RN preparation
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V1) .................................... 2
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V2) .................................. 49
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V3) .................................. 89
(BONUS) ATI PEDIATRIC 200+ QS ...................................... 125
ATI PEDIATRIC PROCTOR EXAM (V1)
SCENARIO 1: ANTEPARTUM CLIENT WITH PRETERM LABOR RISK
1. A nurse is assisting with the care for a client in an antepartum unit. After
reviewing the History and Physical, Nurses' Notes, and Vital Signs, which
findings from the client's medical record are risk factors (indications) for preterm
labor? (Select all that apply)
A. History of 2 preterm births at 30 and 34 weeks of gestation
B. Current gestational age of 34 4/7 weeks with twin pregnancy
C. Late prenatal care
D. BMI > 30
E. Periodontal disease
F. Client reports smoking 4 cigarettes per day
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E, F
Rationales:
• A. CORRECT – Previous preterm birth is the strongest predictor of subsequent
preterm labor. History of 2 preterm births significantly increases risk.
• B. CORRECT – Multiple gestation (twins) and current gestational age in late
preterm period (34 weeks) are both risk factors for preterm delivery.
, • C. CORRECT – Late or no prenatal care is associated with increased risk of
preterm labor due to lack of monitoring and intervention.
• D. INCORRECT – While obesity can complicate pregnancy, it is not a primary
risk factor for preterm labor specifically.
• E. CORRECT – Periodontal disease has been linked to increased risk of preterm
birth due to inflammatory mediators.
• F. CORRECT – Smoking during pregnancy is a major modifiable risk factor for
preterm labor, low birth weight, and placental complications.
2. Which of the following findings from the client's medical record should the
nurse report to the client's primary nurse? (Select all that apply)
A. Vaginal examination showing cervical dilation of 4 cm
B. Pain rate of 8/10
C. Uterine contraction pattern every 2-3 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationales:
• A. CORRECT – Cervical dilation of 4 cm indicates active preterm labor and
requires immediate intervention for tocolysis or delivery preparation.
• B. CORRECT – Pain rate of 8/10 indicates significant discomfort that may affect
maternal hemodynamics and fetal status; requires assessment and intervention.
• C. CORRECT – Regular, frequent contractions (every 2-3 minutes) with
adequate duration indicate progressive labor pattern requiring immediate
provider notification.
3. Complete the following sentence: The greatest risk to the fetus is
______________ due to the maternal contraction pattern.
Options: A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Intraventricular hemorrhage
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Retinopathy of prematurity
, Correct Answer: A. Respiratory distress syndrome
Rationale: The greatest risk to a fetus at 34 weeks gestation with preterm labor is
respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). At this gestational age, fetal surfactant
production may be inadequate, leading to alveolar collapse and respiratory failure after
delivery. The maternal contraction pattern indicates imminent delivery, making RDS the
most immediate life-threatening complication. While B, C, and D are complications of
prematurity, RDS is the most immediate threat requiring surfactant administration and
respiratory support.
4. Drag 1 condition and 1 client finding to fill in each blank: The nurse should
anticipate a provider prescription for ______________ due to the client's
______________.
Options for First Blank (Medication): A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Terbutaline
C. Nifedipine
D. Betamethasone
Options for Second Blank (Finding): A. Labor progression
B. Cervical change
C. Contractions every 5 minutes
D. Fetal heart rate decelerations
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulfate + Labor progression
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the antenatal neuroprotective agent of choice when
preterm delivery is imminent (typically <32 weeks, though often used up to 34 weeks). It
reduces the risk of cerebral palsy in preterm infants. The nurse should anticipate this
prescription due to labor progression (active cervical change and regular
contractions), which indicates delivery is likely within 24 hours. Magnesium sulfate is
administered for neuroprotection when delivery is anticipated, not as a tocolytic (though
it has some tocolytic properties, its primary use here is fetal neuroprotection).
5. The nurse is collaborating with the client's primary nurse to make
recommendations of interventions for implementation to the client's plan of care.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend? (Select 5
interventions)
