Latest ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam with
NGN 180 Questions and Answers
Exam
Management of Care (Questions 1–20)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report?
A. Thrill upon palpation
B. Absence of a bruit
C. Distended blood vessels
D. Swishing sound upon auscultation
Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit (swishing sound auscultated with a stethoscope) and thrill
(vibration felt on palpation) indicate patency of the fistula. Absence of a bruit
suggests clotting or stenosis and requires immediate intervention.
Q2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Which of the following statements
demonstrates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will soak in the tub rather than showering."
B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
C. "I will stop using my microwave oven at home because of my ICD."
D. "I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD."
Answer: B
Rationale: Loose clothing prevents irritation over the device site. Microwaves are
safe, and cell phones should be kept on the opposite side of the body from the
device. Tub baths are discouraged to protect the incision site.
Q3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks gestation and reports
feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses
,should the nurse make?
A. "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant."
B. "You should discuss your feelings about being pregnant with your provider."
C. "Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?"
D. "When did you start having these feelings?"
Answer: A
Rationale: This open-ended statement encourages the client to explore
feelings. Ambivalence is normal in the first trimester of pregnancy and should be
validated, not dismissed.
Q4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-
training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions
should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day
B. Increase the amount of refined grains in the client's diet
C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation
D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation
times
Answer: D
Rationale: Stimulating the defecation reflex at a consistent time daily promotes
bowel regularity for clients with neurogenic bowel. Suppositories should be given
30 minutes before scheduled defecation times.
Q5. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which
of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours
B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes
C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails
D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive
Answer: B
Rationale: Clients in restraints require frequent monitoring (every 15 minutes) to
,assess skin integrity, circulation, and safety. Restraints should be removed every 2
hours (not 4). PRN restraint orders are not permitted.
Q6. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports
cocaine use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A. Hypotension
B. Memory loss
C. Slurred speech
D. Elevated temperature
Answer: D
Rationale: Cocaine is a stimulant that causes sympathetic nervous system
activation, leading to elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypertension, and
agitation.
Q7. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Loose stools
B. Jitteriness
C. Hypertonia
D. Abdominal distention
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal newborn glucose is 40–60 mg/dL. 30 mg/dL is hypoglycemia,
causing jitteriness, poor feeding, lethargy, and hypothermia.
Q8. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a
school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL
B. Platelets 250,000/mm³
, C. Hct 40%
D. WBC 14,000/mm³
Answer: D
Rationale: Normal WBC for a school-age child is 5,000–10,000/mm³. WBC
14,000/mm³ indicates leukocytosis and possible infection requiring further
evaluation.
Q9. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating
a health care proxy in situations that require a durable power of attorney for
health care (DPAHC). Which of the following information should the charge
nurse include?
A. "The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the
client's ability to do so."
B. "The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises."
C. "The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia."
D. "The proxy should manage legal issues for the client."
Answer: C
Rationale: A healthcare proxy (durable power of attorney for healthcare) makes
decisions only when the client is incapacitated (e.g., under anesthesia,
unconscious, or cognitively impaired).
Q10. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Turn the client on their side
B. Administer an analgesic
C. Administer an antiemetic
D. Monitor the client's vital signs
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to prevent aspiration. Turning the client on their side
protects the airway. Antiemetics can be given after positioning.
NGN 180 Questions and Answers
Exam
Management of Care (Questions 1–20)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report?
A. Thrill upon palpation
B. Absence of a bruit
C. Distended blood vessels
D. Swishing sound upon auscultation
Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit (swishing sound auscultated with a stethoscope) and thrill
(vibration felt on palpation) indicate patency of the fistula. Absence of a bruit
suggests clotting or stenosis and requires immediate intervention.
Q2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Which of the following statements
demonstrates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will soak in the tub rather than showering."
B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
C. "I will stop using my microwave oven at home because of my ICD."
D. "I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD."
Answer: B
Rationale: Loose clothing prevents irritation over the device site. Microwaves are
safe, and cell phones should be kept on the opposite side of the body from the
device. Tub baths are discouraged to protect the incision site.
Q3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks gestation and reports
feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses
,should the nurse make?
A. "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant."
B. "You should discuss your feelings about being pregnant with your provider."
C. "Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?"
D. "When did you start having these feelings?"
Answer: A
Rationale: This open-ended statement encourages the client to explore
feelings. Ambivalence is normal in the first trimester of pregnancy and should be
validated, not dismissed.
Q4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-
training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions
should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day
B. Increase the amount of refined grains in the client's diet
C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation
D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation
times
Answer: D
Rationale: Stimulating the defecation reflex at a consistent time daily promotes
bowel regularity for clients with neurogenic bowel. Suppositories should be given
30 minutes before scheduled defecation times.
Q5. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which
of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours
B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes
C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails
D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive
Answer: B
Rationale: Clients in restraints require frequent monitoring (every 15 minutes) to
,assess skin integrity, circulation, and safety. Restraints should be removed every 2
hours (not 4). PRN restraint orders are not permitted.
Q6. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports
cocaine use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A. Hypotension
B. Memory loss
C. Slurred speech
D. Elevated temperature
Answer: D
Rationale: Cocaine is a stimulant that causes sympathetic nervous system
activation, leading to elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypertension, and
agitation.
Q7. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Loose stools
B. Jitteriness
C. Hypertonia
D. Abdominal distention
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal newborn glucose is 40–60 mg/dL. 30 mg/dL is hypoglycemia,
causing jitteriness, poor feeding, lethargy, and hypothermia.
Q8. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a
school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL
B. Platelets 250,000/mm³
, C. Hct 40%
D. WBC 14,000/mm³
Answer: D
Rationale: Normal WBC for a school-age child is 5,000–10,000/mm³. WBC
14,000/mm³ indicates leukocytosis and possible infection requiring further
evaluation.
Q9. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating
a health care proxy in situations that require a durable power of attorney for
health care (DPAHC). Which of the following information should the charge
nurse include?
A. "The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the
client's ability to do so."
B. "The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises."
C. "The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia."
D. "The proxy should manage legal issues for the client."
Answer: C
Rationale: A healthcare proxy (durable power of attorney for healthcare) makes
decisions only when the client is incapacitated (e.g., under anesthesia,
unconscious, or cognitively impaired).
Q10. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Turn the client on their side
B. Administer an analgesic
C. Administer an antiemetic
D. Monitor the client's vital signs
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority is to prevent aspiration. Turning the client on their side
protects the airway. Antiemetics can be given after positioning.
