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NUR 101/ NUR101 Exam 1 – Health Assessment Guide ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Health Assessment Guide | Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Master your health assessment exam with this 2026/2027 complete actual exam for NUR 101 Exam 1 – Health Assessment Guide at Fortis. This 100% verified question and answer set covers key topics: comprehensive health history taking, physical examination techniques (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation), normal vs. abnormal findings, vital signs assessment and interpretation, and documentation of assessment data. Each answer includes a detailed rationale to build clinical assessment skills. Backed by our Pass Guarantee. Download now.

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NUR 101/ NUR101
Course
NUR 101/ NUR101

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​NUR 101/ NUR101 Exam 1 –​
​Health Assessment Guide​
​ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 |​
​Health Assessment Guide |​
​Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed -​
​A+ Graded​
​ ART A – MULTIPLE CHOICE (Q1-75)​
P
​Q1. A 68-year-old patient states, "I've been having chest pain for 3 days." Which component of​
​the health history does this represent?​
​A. Past medical history​
​B. Chief complaint​
​C. Review of systems​
​D. Social history​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: The chief complaint is the patient's own words describing the reason for seeking​
​care, typically documented in quotation marks. It should be brief and in the patient's language,​
​not medical terminology. Past medical history would include previous diagnoses, while review of​
​systems is a head-to-toe symptom checklist. Social history covers lifestyle factors.​
​Q2. When obtaining a history of present illness, the nurse asks, "What does the pain feel like?"​
​This question addresses which OLDCARTS element?​
​A. Onset​
​B. Location​
​C. Character​
​D. Severity​
​[CORRECT] C​
​Rationale: The "Character" element of OLDCARTS asks about the quality of the symptom​
​(sharp, dull, burning, pressure). Onset asks when it started, location asks where it is, and​
​severity asks about intensity (often using a 0-10 scale). Understanding character helps​
​differentiate potential causes of symptoms.​
​Q3. A nurse is interviewing a patient who begins crying when discussing a recent divorce.​
​Which response demonstrates therapeutic communication?​

,​ . "Don't cry, things will get better soon."​
A
​B. "You should focus on your health right now."​
​C. "This seems really difficult for you."​
​D. "Let's talk about something else."​
​[CORRECT] C​
​Rationale: Reflecting feelings ("This seems really difficult for you") is a therapeutic technique​
​that validates the patient's emotions without minimizing or changing the subject. False​
​reassurance (A), giving advice (B), and changing the subject (D) are non-therapeutic responses​
​that may make the patient feel unheard or dismissed.​
​Q4. Which statement about the CAGE questionnaire is correct?​
​A. It screens for depression​
​B. A score of 1 or more indicates alcohol use disorder​
​C. It assesses anxiety levels​
​D. Two or more positive responses suggest need for further evaluation​
​[CORRECT] D​
​Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire screens for alcohol misuse. Two or more positive​
​responses indicate high suspicion of alcohol use disorder and warrant further assessment. It​
​does not diagnose but identifies patients who may need additional screening. The PHQ-2/9​
​screens for depression, and GAD-7 screens for anxiety.​
​Q5. A patient with dementia is unable to rate their pain on a 0-10 scale. Which pain assessment​
​tool is most appropriate?​
​A. Numeric Rating Scale​
​B. Wong-Baker FACES Scale​
​C. FLACC Scale​
​D. PAINAD Scale​
​[CORRECT] D​
​Rationale: The PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) scale is specifically validated​
​for patients with dementia who cannot self-report pain. It assesses breathing, vocalization, facial​
​expression, body language, and consolability. FLACC is for preverbal children, Wong-Baker​
​FACES requires cognitive ability to associate faces with feelings, and NRS requires numerical​
​understanding.​
​Q6. Which vital sign measurement technique is correct?​
​A. Blood pressure cuff should cover 100% of arm circumference​
​B. The apical pulse is auscultated at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line​
​C. Rectal temperature is contraindicated in all children​
​D. Orthostatic vital signs are measured only in the standing position​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: The apical pulse is best heard at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line (apex of​
​the heart) using a stethoscope. The BP cuff bladder should cover 80% of arm circumference​
​(not 100%). Rectal temperature is safe in infants but contraindicated with diarrhea, rectal​
​surgery, or bleeding disorders. Orthostatic vitals require measurement in supine, sitting, AND​
​standing positions.​
​Q7. A patient's BMI is calculated at 31.2. How is this classified?​
​A. Overweight​

,​ . Obese Class I​
B
​C. Obese Class II​
​D. Normal​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: A BMI of 31.2 falls within the Obese Class I range (30-34.9). Overweight is 25-29.9,​
​Obese Class II is 35-39.9, and normal is 18.5-24.9. BMI is a screening tool but does not account​
​for muscle mass or body composition, so additional assessment (waist circumference, body fat​
​percentage) may be needed for comprehensive evaluation.​
​Q8. During a mental status exam, the nurse observes that the patient rapidly shifts topics during​
​conversation, but the topics are loosely connected. This describes:​
​A. Tangential thought process​
​B. Flight of ideas​
​C. Circumstantial thought process​
​D. Loose associations​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: Flight of ideas is characterized by rapid shifting between topics that are loosely​
​connected, often seen in mania. Tangential thought never returns to the original topic.​
​Circumstantial thought eventually returns to the point with excessive detail. Loose associations​
​have no logical connection between ideas, seen in schizophrenia.​
​Q9. Which factor would NOT typically cause a falsely elevated blood pressure reading?​
​A. Cuff too small for the arm​
​B. Arm positioned above heart level​
​C. Recent cigarette smoking​
​D. White coat syndrome​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: An arm positioned ABOVE heart level would cause a falsely LOW blood pressure​
​reading due to reduced hydrostatic pressure. A cuff that is too small yields falsely high readings.​
​Recent smoking and white coat syndrome (anxiety in clinical settings) both elevate blood​
​pressure. Proper technique requires the arm at heart level.​
​Q10. The LEARN model for cultural competence includes all of the following EXCEPT:​
​A. Listen to the patient's perspective​
​B. Explain your medical perspective​
​C. Advise the patient on the correct treatment​
​D. Negotiate a mutually acceptable plan​
​[CORRECT] C​
​Rationale: The LEARN model stands for Listen, Explain, Acknowledge, Recommend, and​
​Negotiate. It does NOT include "Advise" because cultural competence emphasizes collaboration​
​and mutual decision-making rather than the provider dictating treatment. The negotiation step​
​ensures the plan respects the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences.​
​Q11. A nurse is assessing a patient who states, "I hear voices telling me to hurt myself." This is​
​an example of:​
​A. Delusion​
​B. Hallucination​
​C. Illusion​

, ​ . Obsession​
D
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions without external stimuli. Auditory​
​hallucinations are the most common type in psychiatric disorders. Delusions are fixed false​
​beliefs (not sensory). Illusions are misinterpretations of real stimuli. Obsessions are recurrent​
​intrusive thoughts that the patient recognizes as their own.​
​Q12. Normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest is:​
​A. 8-12 breaths per minute​
​B. 12-20 breaths per minute​
​C. 20-30 breaths per minute​
​D. 30-40 breaths per minute​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: Normal adult respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths per minute. Tachypnea is >20, and​
​bradypnea is <12. Children have higher normal rates (20-30 for toddlers, 30-60 for infants).​
​Respiratory rate should be counted for a full minute when irregular.​
​Q13. Which technique demonstrates active listening?​
​A. Finishing the patient's sentences to save time​
​B. Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient speaks​
​C. Planning your next question while the patient is talking​
​D. Interrupting to correct medical misinformation​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: Active listening involves giving full attention through verbal and nonverbal cues such​
​as nodding, eye contact, and verbal acknowledgment. Finishing sentences, planning responses,​
​and interrupting are barriers to effective communication. Active listening builds rapport and​
​ensures accurate information gathering.​
​Q14. The FICA spiritual assessment tool includes all of the following EXCEPT:​
​A. Faith and belief​
​B. Importance and influence​
​C. Community​
​D. Attendance at religious services​
​[CORRECT] D​
​Rationale: FICA stands for Faith/belief, Importance/influence, Community, and Address in care.​
​It does NOT specifically ask about attendance at religious services. Spiritual assessment​
​focuses on what gives life meaning, how beliefs influence health decisions, support systems,​
​and how to incorporate spirituality into the care plan.​
​Q15. A patient has the following vital signs: BP 110/70 mmHg supine, BP 90/60 mmHg​
​standing, HR 88 bpm supine, HR 112 bpm standing. These findings indicate:​
​A. Normal variation​
​B. Orthostatic hypotension​
​C. Hypertensive crisis​
​D. Bradycardia​
​[CORRECT] B​
​Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is diagnosed when systolic BP drops ≥20 mmHg OR​
​diastolic BP drops ≥10 mmHg OR heart rate increases ≥20 bpm when moving from supine to​

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