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THIS EXAM INCLUDES:
• EMS operations and scene safety fundamentals
• NREMT-style multiple-choice practice questions
• High-yield review notes for quick studying
• Updated 2026 content
• Comprehensive EMT exam preparation resource
,EMT Block #2 Exam
Question 1: A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and
apneic. You should:
• A. start CPR and transport immediately.
• B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
• C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
• D. determine if he has a valid living will.
Correct Answer: B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
Rationale: For an unresponsive, pulseless, apneic patient, high-quality CPR
is the immediate priority. CPR circulates oxygenated blood to vital organs.
The rescuer should begin CPR and continue until an Automated External
Defibrillator (AED) is available for defibrillation. Delaying CPR to transport
or check for a living will is not appropriate in this acute, pulseless state.
Question 2: Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
• A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while
EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
• B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as
airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
• C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous
therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
• D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by
advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.
,Correct Answer: B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat
conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac
arrest.
Rationale: BLS is the foundation of emergency medical care and focuses on
noninvasive interventions to support airway, breathing, and circulation
(ABCs). This includes CPR, use of an AED, and relieving airway obstructions.
Invasive procedures like IV therapy and advanced airway management are
components of Advanced Life Support (ALS), not BLS.
Question 3: Between each chest compression, you should:
• A. check for a pulse
• B. allow full chest recoil
• C. administer a breath
• D. remove your hands from the chest
Correct Answer: B. allow full chest recoil
Rationale: Allowing full chest recoil after each compression is essential
because it creates negative intrathoracic pressure, which allows the heart to
refill with blood. Incomplete recoil reduces the effectiveness of subsequent
compressions and decreases cardiac output. While hands should be kept in
contact with the chest, you must release pressure to allow full recoil.
Question 4: Complications associated with chest compressions include all
of the following, EXCEPT:
, • A. a fractured sternum.
• B. gastric distention.
• C. rib fractures.
• D. liver laceration.
Correct Answer: B. gastric distention.
Rationale: Gastric distention is a complication of artificial ventilation,
particularly when excessive pressure or volume is delivered, causing air to
enter the stomach. Chest compressions can cause physical trauma to the
thoracic and abdominal organs, including rib fractures, sternal fractures,
and lacerations of the liver or spleen. Gastric distention is a ventilation-
related complication, not a direct complication of chest compressions.
Question 5: CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after
manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation
occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
• A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which
increased blood flow to her heart.
• B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop
fibrillating, which restored her pulse.
• C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully,
which restored her pulse.
• D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which
improved chest compression effectiveness.
Correct Answer: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava,
which improved chest compression effectiveness.