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BayCare EKG Test 2025/2026 with 150 questions, each with the correct answer and a rationale for every option

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BayCare EKG Test 2025/2026 with 150 questions, each with the correct answer and a rationale for every option

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BayCare EKG Test
2025/2026 with 150 questions,
each with the correct answer and a
rationale for every option




Question 1
A patient presents with chest pain and diaphoresis. The EKG shows ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely involved?
A) Left anterior descending artery
B) Left circumflex artery
C) Right coronary artery
D) Posterior descending artery


Correct ANSWER: C
Rationale:
A) Left anterior descending artery – Typically causes anterior wall MI, seen in V1–V4.
B) Left circumflex artery – Causes lateral wall MI, seen in I, aVL, V5–V6.
C) Right coronary artery – Correct; inferior wall MI (II, III, aVF) is usually from RCA
occlusion.
D) Posterior descending artery – Branch of RCA or LCx; isolated occlusion is rare and
would cause posterior MI.


Question 2

,On an EKG, the normal PR interval duration is:
A) 0.04–0.10 seconds
B) 0.12–0.20 seconds
C) 0.20–0.30 seconds
D) 0.35–0.45 seconds


Correct ANSWER: B
Rationale:
A) 0.04–0.10 seconds – This is the normal QRS duration.
B) 0.12–0.20 seconds – Correct; PR interval reflects AV conduction time.
C) 0.20–0.30 seconds – Indicates first-degree AV block.
D) 0.35–0.45 seconds – Too long; would be seen in advanced AV block.


Question 3
A patient has a heart rate of 42 bpm, regular rhythm, normal QRS, and a P wave before
each QRS. What is the rhythm?
A) Sinus bradycardia
B) Junctional rhythm
C) Second-degree AV block type I
D) Sinus arrhythmia


Correct ANSWER: A
Rationale:
A) Sinus bradycardia – Correct; rate <60 bpm, normal P waves, regular.
B) Junctional rhythm – P waves absent/inverted, rate 40–60 bpm.
C) Second-degree AV block type I – PR progressively lengthens, then dropped QRS.
D) Sinus arrhythmia – Irregular rhythm, rate changes with respiration.


Question 4

,The EKG shows a regular wide-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm. The patient is
hemodynamically unstable. What is the immediate treatment?
A) Adenosine 6 mg IV push
B) Synchronized cardioversion
C) Amiodarone 150 mg IV
D) Vagal maneuvers


Correct ANSWER: B
Rationale:
A) Adenosine – Used for stable SVT, not first-line for unstable wide-complex
tachycardia.
B) Synchronized cardioversion – Correct; unstable tachycardia with pulses requires
immediate cardioversion.
C) Amiodarone – For stable monomorphic VT.
D) Vagal maneuvers – For stable narrow-complex SVT.


Question 5
Which lead is best to view the P wave for sinus node activity?
A) Lead I
B) Lead II
C) Lead V1
D) Lead aVR


Correct ANSWER: B
Rationale:
A) Lead I – Poor P wave visibility.
B) Lead II – Correct; P waves are usually most prominent here.
C) Lead V1 – Good for atrial activity but not best for sinus P.
D) Lead aVR – P wave inverted normally.

, Question 6
A patient’s EKG shows a heart rate of 150 bpm, regular narrow QRS, no visible P
waves. What is the most likely rhythm?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Atrial flutter with 2:1 block
C) Sinus tachycardia
D) Junctional tachycardia


Correct ANSWER: B
Rationale:
A) Atrial fibrillation – Irregularly irregular, no P waves.
B) Atrial flutter with 2:1 block – Correct; regular narrow complex, rate ~150 bpm, often
no visible flutter waves.
C) Sinus tachycardia – Rate <150 typically, P waves present.
D) Junctional tachycardia – Rate 60–100 usually, inverted P waves.


Question 7
The normal axis of the heart is between:
A) –90° and –30°
B) –30° and +90°
C) 0° and +90°
D) +90° and +180°


Correct ANSWER: B
Rationale:
A) –90° to –30° – Left axis deviation.
B) –30° to +90° – Correct; normal axis range.
C) 0° to +90° – Narrow normal, but –30 to +90 is accepted.

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