WGU D344 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
AND PRE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF A+
GRADE GUARANTEE VERIFIED BY
PROFESSIONALS
1. During a psychiatric interview, which action best establishes therapeutic rapport?
A. Providing advice early in the session
B. Directing the conversation toward diagnosis immediately
C. Using active listening and empathy
D. Limiting patient discussion to symptoms only
Explanation: Therapeutic rapport is built through empathy, active listening, and genuine
engagement.
2. A patient reports persistent sadness, loss of interest, fatigue, and impaired concentration
for three weeks. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Adjustment disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Explanation: Major depressive disorder requires symptoms lasting at least two weeks with
functional impairment.
3. Which assessment tool is commonly used to screen for depression severity?
A. GAD-7
B. CAGE
C. MMSE
D. PHQ-9
Explanation: The PHQ-9 is a validated depression screening and monitoring tool.
, 4. A patient reports excessive worry occurring most days for over six months. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Panic disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
Explanation: GAD involves excessive anxiety and worry lasting six months or longer.
5. Which symptom is most characteristic of a manic episode?
A. Low energy
B. Social withdrawal
C. Hypersomnia
D. Decreased need for sleep
Explanation: Mania commonly includes reduced sleep, elevated mood, and increased activity.
6. A patient experiences intrusive memories, nightmares, and avoidance behaviors two
months after a traumatic event. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute stress disorder
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Explanation: PTSD symptoms persist for more than one month following trauma.
7. Which communication technique encourages a patient to elaborate?
A. Giving reassurance
B. Offering opinions
C. Open-ended questions
D. Changing the topic
Explanation: Open-ended questions promote detailed responses and exploration.
8. Which symptom is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Flat affect
B. Avolition
C. Social withdrawal
D. Hallucinations
Explanation: Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
, 9. What is the primary purpose of a mental status examination?
A. Diagnose medical illnesses only
B. Assess current psychological functioning
C. Measure intelligence exclusively
D. Determine socioeconomic status
Explanation: The MSE evaluates appearance, mood, cognition, thought processes, and behavior.
10. A patient states, “I hear voices telling me I am worthless.” What should the PMHNP
assess first?
A. Employment history
B. Family relationships
C. Safety and risk of self-harm
D. Financial concerns
Explanation: Safety assessment is the highest priority when hallucinations are present.
11. Which neurotransmitter is most associated with reward and psychosis?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine dysregulation is linked to psychotic disorders.
12. A patient avoids social gatherings due to fear of embarrassment. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Agoraphobia
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Explanation: Social anxiety disorder involves fear of scrutiny and embarrassment.
13. Which patient statement indicates passive suicidal ideation?
A. “I have a gun and a plan.”
B. “I will hurt myself tonight.”
C. “I wish I would not wake up tomorrow.”
D. “I am collecting pills.”
Explanation: Passive ideation involves thoughts of death without active planning.
, 14. What is the first step in the psychiatric diagnostic process?
A. Medication selection
B. Treatment planning
C. Referral for therapy
D. Comprehensive assessment
Explanation: Accurate diagnosis begins with a thorough assessment.
15. Which disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks?
A. OCD
B. PTSD
C. Panic disorder
D. GAD
Explanation: Panic disorder involves unexpected recurrent panic attacks.
16. A patient presents with compulsive handwashing due to contamination fears. Which
diagnosis is most likely?
A. Illness anxiety disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Specific phobia
D. Panic disorder
Explanation: OCD consists of obsessions and compulsions aimed at reducing anxiety.
17. Which question best assesses suicidal intent?
A. “Are you sleeping well?”
B. “How long have you felt stressed?”
C. “Have you thought about how you would harm yourself?”
D. “Do you live alone?”
Explanation: Direct questions about plans help determine suicide risk.
18. What is transference?
A. Clinician's emotional reaction to patient
B. Patient's feelings projected onto clinician
C. Distortion of memory
D. Cognitive decline
Explanation: Transference occurs when patients redirect feelings from past relationships.
AND PRE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF A+
GRADE GUARANTEE VERIFIED BY
PROFESSIONALS
1. During a psychiatric interview, which action best establishes therapeutic rapport?
A. Providing advice early in the session
B. Directing the conversation toward diagnosis immediately
C. Using active listening and empathy
D. Limiting patient discussion to symptoms only
Explanation: Therapeutic rapport is built through empathy, active listening, and genuine
engagement.
2. A patient reports persistent sadness, loss of interest, fatigue, and impaired concentration
for three weeks. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Adjustment disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Explanation: Major depressive disorder requires symptoms lasting at least two weeks with
functional impairment.
3. Which assessment tool is commonly used to screen for depression severity?
A. GAD-7
B. CAGE
C. MMSE
D. PHQ-9
Explanation: The PHQ-9 is a validated depression screening and monitoring tool.
, 4. A patient reports excessive worry occurring most days for over six months. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Panic disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
Explanation: GAD involves excessive anxiety and worry lasting six months or longer.
5. Which symptom is most characteristic of a manic episode?
A. Low energy
B. Social withdrawal
C. Hypersomnia
D. Decreased need for sleep
Explanation: Mania commonly includes reduced sleep, elevated mood, and increased activity.
6. A patient experiences intrusive memories, nightmares, and avoidance behaviors two
months after a traumatic event. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute stress disorder
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Explanation: PTSD symptoms persist for more than one month following trauma.
7. Which communication technique encourages a patient to elaborate?
A. Giving reassurance
B. Offering opinions
C. Open-ended questions
D. Changing the topic
Explanation: Open-ended questions promote detailed responses and exploration.
8. Which symptom is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Flat affect
B. Avolition
C. Social withdrawal
D. Hallucinations
Explanation: Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
, 9. What is the primary purpose of a mental status examination?
A. Diagnose medical illnesses only
B. Assess current psychological functioning
C. Measure intelligence exclusively
D. Determine socioeconomic status
Explanation: The MSE evaluates appearance, mood, cognition, thought processes, and behavior.
10. A patient states, “I hear voices telling me I am worthless.” What should the PMHNP
assess first?
A. Employment history
B. Family relationships
C. Safety and risk of self-harm
D. Financial concerns
Explanation: Safety assessment is the highest priority when hallucinations are present.
11. Which neurotransmitter is most associated with reward and psychosis?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine dysregulation is linked to psychotic disorders.
12. A patient avoids social gatherings due to fear of embarrassment. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Agoraphobia
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Explanation: Social anxiety disorder involves fear of scrutiny and embarrassment.
13. Which patient statement indicates passive suicidal ideation?
A. “I have a gun and a plan.”
B. “I will hurt myself tonight.”
C. “I wish I would not wake up tomorrow.”
D. “I am collecting pills.”
Explanation: Passive ideation involves thoughts of death without active planning.
, 14. What is the first step in the psychiatric diagnostic process?
A. Medication selection
B. Treatment planning
C. Referral for therapy
D. Comprehensive assessment
Explanation: Accurate diagnosis begins with a thorough assessment.
15. Which disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks?
A. OCD
B. PTSD
C. Panic disorder
D. GAD
Explanation: Panic disorder involves unexpected recurrent panic attacks.
16. A patient presents with compulsive handwashing due to contamination fears. Which
diagnosis is most likely?
A. Illness anxiety disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Specific phobia
D. Panic disorder
Explanation: OCD consists of obsessions and compulsions aimed at reducing anxiety.
17. Which question best assesses suicidal intent?
A. “Are you sleeping well?”
B. “How long have you felt stressed?”
C. “Have you thought about how you would harm yourself?”
D. “Do you live alone?”
Explanation: Direct questions about plans help determine suicide risk.
18. What is transference?
A. Clinician's emotional reaction to patient
B. Patient's feelings projected onto clinician
C. Distortion of memory
D. Cognitive decline
Explanation: Transference occurs when patients redirect feelings from past relationships.
