and Answers with Rationales 2026/2027 | HESI
Pharmacology Exam V1 & V2 | 100% Guarantee
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1. A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism whose serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which
medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Calcium chloride
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
D) Large doses of vitamin D
Answer: C
Calcitonin decreases plasma calcium by inhibiting bone resorption. In hypercalcemia, vitamin D and
calcium supplements are contraindicated as they would raise calcium levels further.
2. A child with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed oral iron supplements. The nurse instructs the
mother to administer it with which food item for best absorption?
A) Milk
B) Water
C) Apple juice
D) Orange juice
Answer: D
Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Citrus juices like orange juice contain significant amounts of vitamin
C, while milk inhibits iron absorption.
3. A client with psoriasis is using topical salicylic acid. Which finding indicates systemic toxicity?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
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,C) Tinnitus
D) Decreased respirations
Answer: C
Salicylism (salicylic acid toxicity) manifests with tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological
disturbances. Salicylic acid is readily absorbed through the skin.
4. A client on isoniazid (INH) for 2 months reports numbness and tingling in the extremities. This
indicates:
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Peripheral neuritis
C) Small blood vessel spasm
D) Impaired peripheral circulation
Answer: B
INH commonly causes peripheral neuritis (numbness, tingling, paresthesia) which can be minimized with
pyridoxine (vitamin B6) supplementation.
5. A client beginning long-term INH therapy should be taught to report which of the following
immediately?
A) Increased appetite
B) Yellow eyes or skin
C) Joint pain
D) Dry skin
Answer: B
INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Yellowing of the eyes or skin indicates liver damage and requires
immediate provider notification.
6. A client is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion. The aPTT is 90 seconds. What action should the
nurse take?
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,A) Administer vitamin K
B) Reduce the infusion rate
C) Stop infusion and notify provider
D) Prepare for CPR
Answer: B
Therapeutic aPTT range is typically 60–80 seconds. A value of 90 seconds indicates increased bleeding
risk. The correct action is to reduce the infusion rate, not stop it unless critically high.
7. A client receiving digoxin therapy has a serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L and reports nausea and
yellow vision. Which condition is most likely?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Allergic reaction
D) Drug tolerance
Answer: B
Headache, anorexia, weakness, visual disturbances (yellow-green halos), and nausea are signs of digoxin
toxicity. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
8. Which medication is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) overdose?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Flumazenil
D) Naloxone
Answer: B
Vitamin K reverses the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by promoting synthesis of clotting factors .
9. What is the antidote for heparin overdose?
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, A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Flumazenil
D) Naloxone
Answer: A
Protamine sulfate binds to and inactivates heparin, reversing its anticoagulant effects .
10. A client receiving rifampin for tuberculosis should be taught that the medication will cause which
harmless side effect?
A) Red-orange discoloration of urine, tears, and sweat
B) Yellowing of the skin and eyes
C) Severe constipation
D) Ringing in the ears
Answer: A
Rifampin causes harmless red-orange discoloration of body fluids. Clients should be forewarned to
prevent unnecessary concern.
11. A nurse is administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment is most
important before administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Serum potassium level
D) Temperature
Answer: C
Loop diuretics like furosemide cause significant potassium loss. Pre-administration potassium levels help
prevent hypokalemia.
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