NR 601 Midterm Exam Primary
Care of the Maturing and Aged
2026/2027 Comprehensive Test Bank
Review, Clinical Practice Questions,
and Midterm Success Study Guide
Question 1:
A patient undergoes spirometry testing to evaluate chronic respiratory symptoms. The
provider reviews the percentage of the forced vital capacity (FVC) that is exhaled
during the first second of forced expiration. Which spirometric measurement
represents this value?
A. Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
B. Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
C. FEV1/FVC Ratio
D. Residual Volume (RV)
Correct Answer: C. FEV1/FVC Ratio
Rationale: The FEV1/FVC ratio represents the proportion of a patient's forced vital
capacity that is exhaled during the first second of expiration. This measurement is
essential in distinguishing obstructive from restrictive pulmonary diseases. FVC refers
to the total amount of air forcibly exhaled after maximal inspiration, while TLC
represents the maximum amount of air contained in the lungs. Residual volume is the
air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration. Therefore, the FEV1/FVC ratio is
the specific parameter used to assess how much of the FVC is expired within one
second.
Question 2:
A nurse practitioner is discussing normal cardiovascular changes associated with
aging. Which physiological alteration is considered a normal age-related cardiac
change?
A. Enlargement of coronary arteries due to increased elasticity
B. Thinning of heart valves secondary to collagen loss
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C. Thickening and rigidity of heart valves due to fibrosis and sclerosis
D. Increased cardiac output resulting from ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: C. Thickening and rigidity of heart valves due to fibrosis and
sclerosis
Rationale: Aging commonly results in fibrosis and sclerosis of the heart valves,
causing them to become thicker and less flexible. These structural changes contribute
to the increased prevalence of valvular disorders among older adults. Coronary
arteries generally become less elastic rather than more elastic. Heart valves do not thin
with age, and cardiac output often declines due to reduced cardiovascular reserve.
Thus, valvular thickening and rigidity are hallmark physiologic cardiac changes
associated with aging.
Question 3:
A 55-year-old man reports a persistent dry cough and intermittent shortness of breath
that began shortly after starting a new antihypertensive medication. Which medication
is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Amlodipine
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: C. Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE
inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to the accumulation of
bradykinin and substance P in the respiratory tract. Amlodipine more commonly
causes peripheral edema, hydrochlorothiazide may lead to electrolyte abnormalities,
and metoprolol is associated with fatigue and bradycardia. The characteristic dry
cough strongly suggests lisinopril as the offending medication.
Question 4:
A patient has known structural heart disease and currently experiences symptoms of
heart failure. According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association staging system, which stage of heart failure best describes this patient?
A. Stage A
B. Stage B
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C. Stage C
D. Stage D
Correct Answer: C. Stage C
Rationale: Stage C heart failure includes patients with structural heart disease who
currently have or previously had symptoms of heart failure. Stage A includes
individuals at risk for heart failure without structural disease. Stage B includes
patients with structural heart disease but no symptoms. Stage D represents advanced,
refractory heart failure requiring specialized interventions. The presence of both
structural abnormalities and symptoms places the patient in Stage C.
Question 5:
A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with mitral valve stenosis during a routine
evaluation. She has no symptoms of heart failure. According to heart failure staging
criteria, which stage best describes her condition?
A. Stage A
B. Stage B
C. Stage C
D. Stage D
Correct Answer: B. Stage B
Rationale: Stage B heart failure refers to patients who have structural heart disease but
have never developed signs or symptoms of heart failure. Mitral valve stenosis
represents structural heart disease. Because the patient remains asymptomatic, she fits
the criteria for Stage B. Stage C requires symptoms, while Stage D represents severe,
treatment-resistant disease.
Question 6:
Which diagnostic study is considered the best noninvasive method for evaluating
structural heart disease and cardiac dysfunction?
A. Chest radiography
B. Electrocardiography
C. Echocardiography
D. Exercise stress testing
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Correct Answer: C. Echocardiography
Rationale: Echocardiography is the gold standard noninvasive test for assessing
cardiac structure and function. It provides information regarding ventricular
performance, valvular integrity, chamber size, and ejection fraction.
Electrocardiography evaluates electrical activity but not structural abnormalities.
Chest radiographs offer limited structural information, and stress testing primarily
evaluates ischemia. Therefore, echocardiography is the preferred diagnostic tool.
Question 7:
A patient reports chronic pain that has persisted for several years. Which consequence
is most commonly associated with ongoing chronic pain?
A. Increased social engagement
B. Improved sleep quality
C. Depression and decreased socialization
D. Enhanced physical functioning
Correct Answer: C. Depression and decreased socialization
Rationale: Chronic pain often has profound physical, emotional, and social
consequences. Persistent pain is strongly associated with depression, sleep
disturbances, reduced activity, and social withdrawal. These factors significantly
diminish quality of life. Increased social engagement and improved functioning are
unlikely outcomes when pain remains uncontrolled.
Question 8:
The Beers Criteria are primarily used to evaluate medication use in which patient
population?
A. Adults older than 50 years
B. Adults older than 65 years
C. Patients with heart failure
D. Patients with chronic kidney disease
Correct Answer: B. Adults older than 65 years
Rationale: The Beers Criteria identify potentially inappropriate medications in adults
aged 65 years and older. These guidelines help clinicians reduce adverse drug events
and medication-related complications common in older adults. While patients with