WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology for
APN OA EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027
ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED SOLUTIONS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) - ANSWER ✔ The GCS is scored between 3
and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
2. Severe TBI GCS Score - ANSWER ✔ A GCS score of 3-8 describes a
severe TBI.
3. Obsessions - ANSWER ✔ Obsessions are recurrent and persistent
thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing emotions such as
anxiety or disgust.
4. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) Characteristics - ANSWER ✔
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
5. Schizophrenia Symptoms - ANSWER ✔ The characteristics of
schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
6. Acute Otitis Media - ANSWER ✔ The classic presentation of otitis media
is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a recent history of a cold
or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
7. Peritonsillar Abscess - ANSWER ✔ Peritonsillar abscess is characterized
by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and
a hot potato voice.
,8. Graves' Disease - ANSWER ✔ Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition
also known as 'diffuse toxic goiter' is the most common cause of
hyperthyroidism in this age group.
9. Insulin Resistance Finding - ANSWER ✔ Triglycerides > 150mg/dL is
associated with increasing insulin resistance.
10.Postprandial Glucose Level Influencer - ANSWER ✔ Carbohydrate is a
macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose levels.
11.Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus - ANSWER ✔ Type 1 DM is associated with
beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency resulting in
significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
12.Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus Risk Factors - ANSWER ✔ Major risk factors
are heredity and obesity.
13.Endometrial Cancer Risk Factor - ANSWER ✔ Oral contraceptives have
been shown to reduce the incidence of endometrial cancer.
14.Mixed Precocious Puberty - ANSWER ✔ Mixed precocious puberty cases
the child to develop some secondary characteristics of the opposite sex, such
as the feminization of a boy.
15.Delayed Puberty Cause - ANSWER ✔ In 95% of cases, delayed puberty is
physiologic in nature.
16.Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
ANSWER ✔ Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
17.In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - ANSWER ✔ Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
18.What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - ANSWER ✔
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation
, genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are
performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and
14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates
amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
19.Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene? - ANSWER ✔ Cri du chat syndrome (translated as
"cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry
often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can
present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
20.How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - ANSWER ✔
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
21.Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may
not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the
father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
22.Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? -
ANSWER ✔ Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence
of disease.
23.What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
ANSWER ✔ Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the
most thorough and accurate assessment.
24.A male infant has been diagnosed with intussusception, and the student asks
the healthcare professional to explain the condition.
Which explanation by the professional is most accurate? - ANSWER ✔ An
intussusception is where one part of the intestine telescopes into another section
of the intestine. Intussusception's cause is typically idiopathic but can be linked
to some viruses that cause swelling in the intestines and is often seen in the fall
, and winter. Intussusception most commonly affects male children from 3-36
months of age.
25.The hallmark symptom of Intussusception in infants is:
A) Currant jelly stools
B) Projectile vomiting
C) Steatorrhea
D) Rebound tenderness - ANSWER ✔ A
26.An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for an adult patient
who fell off a ladder and has a T5 compression and a compound fracture of
the femur.
The following assessment data is noted:
Vital signs: BP 102/52
Apical pulse: 48
Weak peripheral pulses
Flaccid lower extremities
Severe bruising of the femur
Which type of shock should the APRN suspect? - ANSWER ✔ Neurogenic
27.An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for a patient who
experienced a 20% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. Current
assessment findings include massive evaporative water losses, a flux of large
amounts of fluid and electrolytes in the tissues, generalized edema, and
circulatory hypovolemia. The APRN needs to take immediate action to
prevent irreversible hypovolemic shock and death.
Which priority action should be taken by the APRN? - ANSWER ✔
Administer up to 30 L of lactated ringer solution over 24 hours
28.An adult patient has experienced a third-degree burn. An advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) is attempting to calculate the total body surface
area affected using the rule of nines. The areas involved include the anterior
and posterior right arm and leg and the groin.
What is the estimated total body surface area that will be assigned by the
APRN? - ANSWER ✔ 28%
29.An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) assesses a school-aged child
with sepsis who is experiencing new symptoms of hyperthermia,
tachycardia, and tachypnea.
APN OA EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027
ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED SOLUTIONS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) - ANSWER ✔ The GCS is scored between 3
and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
2. Severe TBI GCS Score - ANSWER ✔ A GCS score of 3-8 describes a
severe TBI.
3. Obsessions - ANSWER ✔ Obsessions are recurrent and persistent
thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing emotions such as
anxiety or disgust.
4. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) Characteristics - ANSWER ✔
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
5. Schizophrenia Symptoms - ANSWER ✔ The characteristics of
schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
6. Acute Otitis Media - ANSWER ✔ The classic presentation of otitis media
is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a recent history of a cold
or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
7. Peritonsillar Abscess - ANSWER ✔ Peritonsillar abscess is characterized
by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and
a hot potato voice.
,8. Graves' Disease - ANSWER ✔ Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition
also known as 'diffuse toxic goiter' is the most common cause of
hyperthyroidism in this age group.
9. Insulin Resistance Finding - ANSWER ✔ Triglycerides > 150mg/dL is
associated with increasing insulin resistance.
10.Postprandial Glucose Level Influencer - ANSWER ✔ Carbohydrate is a
macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose levels.
11.Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus - ANSWER ✔ Type 1 DM is associated with
beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency resulting in
significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
12.Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus Risk Factors - ANSWER ✔ Major risk factors
are heredity and obesity.
13.Endometrial Cancer Risk Factor - ANSWER ✔ Oral contraceptives have
been shown to reduce the incidence of endometrial cancer.
14.Mixed Precocious Puberty - ANSWER ✔ Mixed precocious puberty cases
the child to develop some secondary characteristics of the opposite sex, such
as the feminization of a boy.
15.Delayed Puberty Cause - ANSWER ✔ In 95% of cases, delayed puberty is
physiologic in nature.
16.Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
ANSWER ✔ Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
17.In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - ANSWER ✔ Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
18.What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - ANSWER ✔
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation
, genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are
performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and
14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates
amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between
weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
19.Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene? - ANSWER ✔ Cri du chat syndrome (translated as
"cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry
often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can
present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
20.How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - ANSWER ✔
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
21.Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may
not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the
father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
22.Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? -
ANSWER ✔ Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence
of disease.
23.What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
ANSWER ✔ Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the
most thorough and accurate assessment.
24.A male infant has been diagnosed with intussusception, and the student asks
the healthcare professional to explain the condition.
Which explanation by the professional is most accurate? - ANSWER ✔ An
intussusception is where one part of the intestine telescopes into another section
of the intestine. Intussusception's cause is typically idiopathic but can be linked
to some viruses that cause swelling in the intestines and is often seen in the fall
, and winter. Intussusception most commonly affects male children from 3-36
months of age.
25.The hallmark symptom of Intussusception in infants is:
A) Currant jelly stools
B) Projectile vomiting
C) Steatorrhea
D) Rebound tenderness - ANSWER ✔ A
26.An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for an adult patient
who fell off a ladder and has a T5 compression and a compound fracture of
the femur.
The following assessment data is noted:
Vital signs: BP 102/52
Apical pulse: 48
Weak peripheral pulses
Flaccid lower extremities
Severe bruising of the femur
Which type of shock should the APRN suspect? - ANSWER ✔ Neurogenic
27.An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for a patient who
experienced a 20% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. Current
assessment findings include massive evaporative water losses, a flux of large
amounts of fluid and electrolytes in the tissues, generalized edema, and
circulatory hypovolemia. The APRN needs to take immediate action to
prevent irreversible hypovolemic shock and death.
Which priority action should be taken by the APRN? - ANSWER ✔
Administer up to 30 L of lactated ringer solution over 24 hours
28.An adult patient has experienced a third-degree burn. An advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) is attempting to calculate the total body surface
area affected using the rule of nines. The areas involved include the anterior
and posterior right arm and leg and the groin.
What is the estimated total body surface area that will be assigned by the
APRN? - ANSWER ✔ 28%
29.An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) assesses a school-aged child
with sepsis who is experiencing new symptoms of hyperthermia,
tachycardia, and tachypnea.
