BSN Week 8 Quiz | OB/Maternity & Pediatric Nursing 2026|Galen
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation with severe pre-eclampsia.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
B. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer: C
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate worsening renal perfusion or
magnesium toxicity, both of which are critical in severe pre-eclampsia.
2. Which assessment finding is a classic sign of placenta previa?
A. Painful, rigid abdomen
B. Dark red vaginal bleeding with severe pain
C. Continuous low back pain
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red bleeding, whereas
abruptio placentae involves painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
,3. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth and finds: heart rate
110/min, slow/irregular respiratory effort, some flexion of extremities, grimace
in response to suctioning, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the
APGAR score?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: A
Rationale: HR > 100 (2), Slow Resp (1), Flexion (1), Grimace (1), Acrocyanosis (1) = Total
score of 6.
4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing postpartum
hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
A. Performing firm fundal massage
B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
C. Administering oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. Preparing the client for a hysterectomy
Answer: A
Rationale: Fundal massage is the first-line intervention to stimulate uterine contractions
and stop bleeding caused by atony.
5. Which of the following findings in a 6-month-old infant should be reported to
the provider?
A. Failure to double birth weight
B. Inability to sit without support
C. Absence of the Moro reflex
D. Closed posterior fontanel
Answer: A
, Rationale: Infants should double their birth weight by 5 to 6 months. Failure to do so may
indicate a growth or nutritional issue.
6. A toddler with Tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic
during a crying spell. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer 100% oxygen
B. Call the rapid response team
C. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously
D. Place the child in a knee-chest position
Answer: D
Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which helps
reduce the right-to-left shunt during a ‘tet spell.’
7. Which developmental task is characteristic of Erikson’s stage for a 4-year-old
child?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C. Industry vs. Inferiority
D. Initiative vs. Guilt
Answer: D
Rationale: Preschoolers (ages 3 to 6) are in the stage of Initiative vs. Guilt, where they
begin to assert power and control through play and social interaction.
8. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with Celiac disease. Which food
choice should be avoided?
A. Rice cakes
B. Oatmeal cookies
C. Corn tortillas
D. Fresh strawberries
Answer: B
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation with severe pre-eclampsia.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
B. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer: C
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate worsening renal perfusion or
magnesium toxicity, both of which are critical in severe pre-eclampsia.
2. Which assessment finding is a classic sign of placenta previa?
A. Painful, rigid abdomen
B. Dark red vaginal bleeding with severe pain
C. Continuous low back pain
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red bleeding, whereas
abruptio placentae involves painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
,3. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth and finds: heart rate
110/min, slow/irregular respiratory effort, some flexion of extremities, grimace
in response to suctioning, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the
APGAR score?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: A
Rationale: HR > 100 (2), Slow Resp (1), Flexion (1), Grimace (1), Acrocyanosis (1) = Total
score of 6.
4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing postpartum
hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
A. Performing firm fundal massage
B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
C. Administering oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. Preparing the client for a hysterectomy
Answer: A
Rationale: Fundal massage is the first-line intervention to stimulate uterine contractions
and stop bleeding caused by atony.
5. Which of the following findings in a 6-month-old infant should be reported to
the provider?
A. Failure to double birth weight
B. Inability to sit without support
C. Absence of the Moro reflex
D. Closed posterior fontanel
Answer: A
, Rationale: Infants should double their birth weight by 5 to 6 months. Failure to do so may
indicate a growth or nutritional issue.
6. A toddler with Tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic
during a crying spell. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer 100% oxygen
B. Call the rapid response team
C. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously
D. Place the child in a knee-chest position
Answer: D
Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which helps
reduce the right-to-left shunt during a ‘tet spell.’
7. Which developmental task is characteristic of Erikson’s stage for a 4-year-old
child?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C. Industry vs. Inferiority
D. Initiative vs. Guilt
Answer: D
Rationale: Preschoolers (ages 3 to 6) are in the stage of Initiative vs. Guilt, where they
begin to assert power and control through play and social interaction.
8. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with Celiac disease. Which food
choice should be avoided?
A. Rice cakes
B. Oatmeal cookies
C. Corn tortillas
D. Fresh strawberries
Answer: B
